There are other instances like that. All of Psalms is supposed to be songs TO God... not from God. Supposedly *shrug*
And the "All Scripture is inspired by God"... please... the only thing that was considered Scripture when that was said was the Torah. MAN decided what was scripture... by voting on it! God doesn't give a list of books in the Bible "Thou shalt follow only these books... any other books are abomination" Too convenient to use those things to mean something you want them to... while, an honest look at it will show you it's not what they claim it is. The New Test wasn't written at the time "all Scripture is inspired" was said.
2006-10-30 06:03:27
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answer #1
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answered by riverstorm13 3
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Paul was speaking with his own words & convictions. However just like Annanias who was the high priest for the year, prophesied that Christ would be sacrificed, "the one for the many" so also the words that Paul spoke where also under the conviction of the Holy Spirit. (God breathed Word) Men may have written the actual words that they felt were just coming from the Heart, but God is the One that put the words into their heart. (God is also the One that keeps His Word together, & intact just the way He wants it to remain!)
Jeremiah 10:23 O Lord, I know the way of man is not in himself; It is not in man who walks to direct his own steps.
Proverbs 16:9 A man's heart plans his way, But the Lord directs his steps.
Proverbs 16: 33 The lot is cast into the lap, But its every decision is from the Lord.
The Bible is a compilation of 66 books written by several authors over a 1500 year period. It has faithfully remained almost totally unchanged since the day it was put together as One Book.
**I say almost unchanged, as with translations some things get "modified" but anyone that takes the time to check the true meanings in original context will find that the same meaning is still implied even in the changes.
Also, one other thing in regard to your original question...that is when Paul is stating the words in the above listed manner, it is just that he is making it plain that this is not a "commandment" from the Lord, (which should be obeyed to the very BEST of our abilities) however since sin is prevalent...it is a way for man to learn mercy, IF he can, but if he cannot then it is better to allow the divorce, etc, than for the person to continue to become increasingly sinful, because of his own desires, or hated or whatever is causing the reason for the man's displeasure in the first place. It is God allowing an "option" in these matters.
2006-10-30 05:17:24
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answer #2
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answered by maranatha132 5
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I think: Paul being a decipile was given the authority to spread the word of our good Lord. In 1 Corinthians ( KV ), Paul is actually writting in his own words, his encounters and experience's along the way. The bible also says that " But I SPEAK THIS BY PERMISSION, and not by Commandment. To those who believe Remember the Lord is always with you. Knock and the Door Shall Be OPENED!!
2006-10-30 05:01:30
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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The bible is the inspired word of God, Paul was a man of God. "The holy spirit, through Paul, leaves the details of lives, whether celibate or unmarried, to the individual consciences, though with large-hearted wisdom and charity. He would emancipate them from human and unauthorized restrictions". It doesn't mean that it's not inspired from God, it just means that Jesus did not teach anything about what to do in some of these cases.
Christ gave Paul a revelation that He didn't give to any of the other disciples. Paul was given the revelation of the New Covenant.
BTW, I don't consider that an attack on my faith.
2006-10-30 04:56:26
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answer #4
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answered by Gail R 4
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I believe that the first part of the first sentence states "But I speak this by permission....meaning that he was granted the right to speak since he was under the direction of God's active force...the holy spirit, he obviously used his God given ability to reason what the will of God was...otherwise, you would not have found it in the Bible. 2Peter 1:19-21: "Consequently we have the prophetic word made more sure; and YOU are doing well in paying attention to it as to a lamp shining in a dark place, until day dawns and a daystar rises, in YOUR hearts. 20 For YOU know this first, that no prophecy of Scripture springs from any private interpretation. 21 For prophecy was at no time brought by man’s will, but men spoke from God as they were borne along by holy spirit. "
So it seems that Paul was under the direction and guided in all his thinking by God's active force, therefore although this was not directly a command of God it was allowed because he was giving his advice from what he, as a human, had found to be healthy teaching, not going against God's holy spirit, and in line with the truth.
That is what is so great about the Bible having been penned by fellow humans...we can understand it because they were allowed to use their words to give us God's Word. There by giving us the human aspect. Through their human experiences they can give us words we can relate to and understand.
2006-10-30 05:13:41
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answer #5
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answered by wannaknow 5
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It's a worthy question, in light of the Scriptural claim in 2 Timothy 3:16 that all of it is inspired by God (literally, "God-breathed"/"theopneustes", in greek) Did you also wonder why Paul had to speak "by permission"? Apparently, the Holy Spirit allowed matters to be expressed that were not a direct commandment of God. It shows us how God works outside of His given rules for those obeying the Spirit rather than the letter of the law. God still caused it to be written, and circulated among the churches, and later to be included in the cannon of Scripture.
2006-10-30 05:11:49
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answer #6
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answered by John 4
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Have you also noticed that Paul will sometimes quote from secular (i.e.: non-Christian) poets and philosophers to make a point?
I have no problem with Paul interjecting his own private editorial notes into the Bible, especially since he clearly made a distinction between his own notes and the dictates of God the Holy Spirit (and he said that he had "permission", which actually implies that he asked God about it before he included it). Since God gave him permission to say it, the passage still comes indirectly from God, since God did not forbid him to include it (God was OK with the passage being there).
2006-10-30 05:00:21
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answer #7
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answered by Randy G 7
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The Bible is not really contradicting itself, but is allowing a fine line between humanity and Divinity to be drawn. What you need to do is to go and buy at any large Bookstore 'The Other Bible.' It is just some of the Books that King James conveiniently left out.
2006-10-30 04:55:58
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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2 Timothy 3:16 All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:
Paul also wrote this verse to Timothy.
God has spoken to Paul and commands that he write certain things.
Paul also takes opportunity to write other things (by permission of God) to include in his letters to the churches and individuals.
But even the things Paul writes "by permission" have come to Paul's mind through the Holy Spirit.
So, ALL scripture is given by inspiration of God.
2006-10-30 04:55:43
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answer #9
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answered by Bobby Jim 7
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2 Timothy 3:16 states that “All scripture is inspired by God….”
In 2 Peter 1:20-21, Peter reminds the reader to “know this first of all, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation, … but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God.”
The Bible itself tells us that it is God who is the author of His book.
2006-10-30 04:54:23
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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