Gods word was to obey the laws of the land. Most christians accept that and i've heard it used in many arguements.. but wasn't it against the Law of the Land for Jesus to preach christianity in some of the areas he preached in? if so wouldn't that make him a sinner? or is there a separation for specific circumstances from the old testament and Gods law to the new testament and the word of Jesus? I'm a deist and as such this has no effect on my religious beliefs.. but i would like to know how Christianity accounts for this.
2006-10-30 03:38:30 · 10 answers · asked by pip 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
this is a serious question and not a "try". sorry for the incorrect use of religious terminology lol but just insert the proper word where needed. i'm not trying to make you doubt or question your religion, merely trying to understand something that came to mind.
2006-10-30 03:46:49 · update #1
ty rock 788, that or philisophical answers are the type i'm looking for.
2006-10-30 03:51:55 · update #2
rukidding, that was on a Shiraz question.. and you may be the only person i've met that takes anything anyone says on a Shiraz question seriously. if i offended you then i'm sorry you were offended.. i was just using the same "fussy" logic that Shiraz likes to use and in no way does it represent my views of the Catholic faith.. actually most of my close friends are Catholic and i have a lot of respect for them and their faith.. so please remember the context of the areana for the answer.
2006-10-30 05:27:37 · update #3
bah, i need to eat lunch.. i can't even spell fuzzy correctly right now lol.
2006-10-30 05:28:22 · update #4
A portion of this account might answer your question:
Acts 5:27-29 - So they brought them and stood them in the San´he·drin hall. And the high priest questioned them and said: “We positively ordered you not to keep teaching upon the basis of this name, and yet, look! you have filled Jerusalem with your teaching, and you are determined to bring the blood of this man upon us.” In answer Peter and the [other] apostles said: “We must obey God as ruler rather than men."
What this scripture is telling us is as long as it doesn't conflict with what God obeys us to do, we respect the authorities.
For more information about Jehovah's Witnesses, go to:
http://www.watchtower.org/
2006-10-30 03:43:52 · answer #1 · answered by roc788 3 · 3⤊ 0⤋
We are to do God's will at all times.
God does not wish that any should perish, but have eternal life.
Jesus said "I AM the Truth, the Way and the Light, no man can come unto the Father but by Me."
Jesus commanded that we go and spread the Good News of God's salvation through the sacrifice of Jesus.
Jesus did not start a new religion, He came to fulfill and explain the Old Testament.
2006-10-30 11:51:22 · answer #2 · answered by tim 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hey, pip, just a word to say that your "explanation" of Catholics probably having the most stds because they don't believe in birth control, is as ridiculous as ridiculous an answer as this question. What stds and the lack of birth control have to do with each other I suppose is because I guess Catholics wouldn't use a condom? If you are relying on condoms as your sole method of birth control, then I suppose you have many kids. And just because the Pope may say that we shouldn't be using birth control, doesn't mean we aren't. I guess you don't know that sort of thing, but you don't have a problem speaking as if you're an expert, right?
2006-10-30 13:15:43 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
1) I've never heard of any laws in the time of Jesus that restricted anyone from preaching anything in any region. Can you cite such, for an example?
2) God's laws and commands superceed man's, where they conflict (Acts 5:29 -- "But Peter and the other apostles answered and said: "We ought to obey God rather than men").
2006-10-30 12:41:24 · answer #4 · answered by BC 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was a Jew. He preached Judaism. He didn't preach Christianity because there was no such thing until after he died.
Nice try.
2006-10-30 11:41:39 · answer #5 · answered by leo509 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there were places Jesus left from because the people didn't want to hear his message.
Also there's a time one stands up to oppression when the Laws prohibit one's worship of God --- many examples of this is seen in various places in the bible. (Obedience to God is better than sacrifice.... )
2006-10-30 11:54:04 · answer #6 · answered by jaimestar64cross 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was not preaching about himself. he was speaking of Gods love and the forfilment of the old testiment prophasies.
2006-10-30 11:47:50 · answer #7 · answered by Mim 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
How do you know that was Gods word? I dare you to answer that with out refering to the bible.
2006-10-30 11:41:49 · answer #8 · answered by Zanahade 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you are a deist, then why should you care to know the answer. He was put to death wasn`t he? There is your answer to your question.
2006-10-30 11:48:09 · answer #9 · answered by Sparkles 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus never sinned.
2006-10-30 11:41:31 · answer #10 · answered by coutterhill 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋