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Here is the sentence.
"What makes the Septuagint extremely invaluable is that the text from which it is translated has been lost."
So what does "it" refer to ?
"Which" usually is followed by a clause,why not here?
Thank you,

2006-10-30 01:02:42 · 2 answers · asked by Gone Car 1 in Society & Culture Languages

2 answers

"It" refers to "the Septuagint".

"Which" IS followed by a clause: "it is translated". Here "which" is not the suject of the clause, but the object of the prepostion "from"--another way to write that part of the sentence would be:

The Septuagint (or it) is translated from a text which has been lost.

Does that look better to you? Both are perfectly grammatical but the one I wrote is less convoluted (of course it's also not the whole sentence) and probably more common.

2006-10-30 01:45:33 · answer #1 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 0 0

"it" stands for the Septuagint.
as for which, it is not followed by a clause here, becase it is "from which". when relative pronouns are followed by a preposition, they don't take clauses.

2006-10-30 09:43:47 · answer #2 · answered by chica andaluza 2 · 0 0

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