I'm not gay, and do not find anything appealing about the practice of sodomy. But if others do, and practice it in the privacy of their homes, how does it concern me, or infringe upon my rights?
Yet Muslims hate homosexuals so much that more than 4,000 alleged homosexuals have been killed by the sharia courts of Iran. Not all were convicted of homosexuality, admittedly, since a well-publicised case in 2005:
http://www.queerplanet.us/moxie/newscast/international/gay-teens-executed-in-ira.shtml
the sharia police have used the tactic of torturing the alleged gays into confessing to rape or other crimes. Why be so dishonest? If they believe killing gays is good, why the subterfuge?
http://direland.typepad.com/direland/2006/09/khatami_at_harv.html
2006-10-29
22:03:28
·
11 answers
·
asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
That's a fair comment Poki, but you are a knowlegable man who would know Iran is not the only country this goes on. You would also be aware of the hadiths that specify death by stoning for the offence, I don't need to quote them to you
2006-10-29
22:19:53 ·
update #1