I can't find them. And I'm not talking about the ones that are affirmative of heterosexuality. I know about those.
2006-10-29 08:04:27 · 10 answers · asked by Rockstar 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
There are too many of them, and they are too clear to just dismiss them with the idea that Christians misinterpret them. According to the Bible it is wrong, so if you want to approve of it you will have to uses some other source.
Leviticus 20:13 `If there is a man who lies with a male as those who lie with a woman, both of them have committed a detestable act; they shall surely be put to death. Their bloodguiltiness is upon them.
1 Cor 6:9 Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals,
1 Timothy 1:9 realizing the fact that law is not made for a righteous person, but for those who are lawless and rebellious, for the ungodly and sinners, for the unholy and profane, for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers 10 and immoral men and homosexuals and kidnappers and liars and perjurers, and whatever else is contrary to sound teaching,
Romans 1:26 For this reason God gave them over to degrading passions; for their women exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural, 27 and in the same way also the men abandoned the natural function of the woman and burned in their desire toward one another, men with men committing indecent acts and receiving in their own persons the due penalty of their error.
There are many more.
2006-10-29 08:14:11 · answer #1 · answered by oldguy63 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You mean verses that claim homosexuality is a sexually immoral sin?
Leviticus, Romans, 1 Corinthians, I believe.
BTW, heterosexuality is the opposite of homosexuality, so if you've found ones that "affirm" homosexuality, they would be the same ones that oppose homosexuality.
See "man shall not lay with a man," "woman shall not lay with a woman," etc. See also the story of Sodom and Gomorrah.
2006-10-29 16:09:01 · answer #2 · answered by azar_and_bath 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Romans 1:27-29
2006-10-29 16:05:55 · answer #3 · answered by oneeightnineone 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Romans 1:27
2006-10-29 16:07:12 · answer #4 · answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Leviticus 20:13-If a man also lie with mankind, as he lieth with a woman, both of them have committed an abomination: they shall surely be put to death; their blood shall be upon them.
1 Corinthians 6:9-Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders
Please be wise and stay away from homosexuality.
2006-10-29 16:14:25 · answer #5 · answered by Maurice H 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Most people, even priests and pastors, misinterpret the passages about homosexuality.
The story of Sodom and Gomorrah? That's a warning against rape and inhospitality. The reason for Sodom's destruction is made clear in Ezekiel 16:48-50. According to Ezekiel, the sins of Sodom were pride, laziness, being inhospitable, neglecting the needs of the poor, greed, and idolatry (the worshipping of idols). Nothing about homosexuality is mentioned.
Leviticus? Those passages were part of the Holiness Code which has been done away with and is no longer binding to modern-day Christians.
1 Corinthians? Mistranslation - the word malakee in this passage is used elsewhere in the Bible to mean someone who lacks discipline or one who is morally weak, and never is it used in reference to sexuality or gender.
1 Timothy? Also a mistranslation. 1 Timothy was an admonishment against male prostitution, not committed, loving same sex relationships.
Romans? In the passage the Greek words physin and paraphysin have been translated to mean natural and unnatural respectively. Contrary to popular belief, the word paraphysin does not mean "to go against the laws of nature", but rather implies action which is uncharacteristic for that person. An example of the word paraphysin is used in Romans 11:24, where God acts in an uncharacteristic (paraphysin) way to accept the Gentiles. When the scripture is understood correctly, it seems to imply that it would be unnatural for heterosexuals to live as homosexuals, and for homosexuals to live as heterosexuals.
2006-10-29 16:06:50 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 4⤋
Leviticus 18:22 Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.
2006-10-29 16:11:53 · answer #7 · answered by Bob L 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Are you honestly asking this or trying to make a point? c;
2006-10-29 16:09:14 · answer #8 · answered by Allison 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Why do you care? The bible is fiction.
2006-10-29 16:09:38 · answer #9 · answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 · 0⤊ 2⤋
hey can't use that book to tell me queer is not it!
2006-10-29 16:08:40 · answer #10 · answered by I'm a Pretty Boy! 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋