Under Islamic law, rape is automatically assumed to be the fault of the woman, not the man. To take a middle of the road example of a Muslim dictatorship, Pakistan, it requires either a confession on the part of the man, or the testimony of 4 male witnesses, to secure a conviction against a rapist. If the prosecution fails, the victim may be charged with adultery, and if found guilty, is stoned to death. This means few complaints are made, and no convictions are recorded, except against the victims. Is is any wonder, then, that so many Muslim men feel they have a licence to rape and when they are convicted of it in Western countries, they and their parents express surprise and outrage.
http://www.theaustralian.news.com.au/story/0,20867,20656733-28737,00.html
2006-10-28
17:41:42
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17 answers
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asked by
Anonymous
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
It's sharia law, don't lie about it. They have the same laws in Iran, excpet that they no longer use stoning to death for the victims, but hanging on a mobile crane:
http://news.bbc.co.uk/2/hi/programmes/5217424.stm
2006-10-28
17:58:02 ·
update #1
Umer, have you actually read the Quran or hadiths? There is no prohibition on rape in any of them. If you can point me to an occurrence of the word rape in any mainstream translation of these books, I will award you best answer
2006-10-28
19:54:52 ·
update #2