when you read Isaiah 10-14 you will see what I mean
Again the LORD spoke to Ahaz, 11 "Ask the LORD your God for a sign, whether in the deepest depths or in the highest heights."
12 But Ahaz said, "I will not ask; I will not put the LORD to the test."
13 Then Isaiah said, "Hear now, you house of David! Is it not enough to try the patience of men? Will you try the patience of my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
According to the scripture above Isaiah is saying to Ahaz that God will give you a sign. If Ahaz lived hundreds of years before the birth of Jesus then how can the verse possibly be talking about him?
this is shown to be even more of a problem when Isaiah 8: 3-8
decribes the birth of this child...
so again how can Isaiah 7:14 be refering to Jesus?
2006-10-28
16:12:28
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13 answers
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asked by
Gamla Joe
7
in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
Chervil
first the verse says son second Mary is still hundreds of years too late
2006-10-28
16:20:08 ·
update #1
Hiney Bottoms
while I dont quite buy that argument I do understand its logic, thanks for your insightful input.
2006-10-28
16:25:21 ·
update #2
book of lessons. You have to remember this book was written by man and translated by man. Not everything is going to make sense or have just one explanation. It is alright to have questions, that means you are a thinking person. Just what jesus would have wanted...even he asked questions about why things were happening to him and why he had to do certain things. You have to ask what would you rather have blind faith or educated faith?
2006-10-28 20:05:04
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answer #1
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answered by pyt_tlc 3
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gratvol,
Who would give you a thumbs down for that? Anyways, hold on . . . .
EDIT: gratvol, Meet Mr. Barnes
"Shall give you" Primarily to the house of David; the king and royal family of Judah. It was especially designed to assure the government that the kingdom would be safe. Doubtless, however, the word `you' is designed to include the nation, or the people of the kingdom of Judah. It would be so public a sign, and so clear a demonstration, as to convince them that their city and land must be ultimately safe.
"A sign" A pledge; a token; an evidence of the fulfillment of what is predicted. The word does not, of necessity, denote a miracle, though it is often so applied; see the notes at Isa. 7:11. Here it means a proof, a demonstration, a certain indication that what he had said should be fulfilled. As that was to be such a demonstration as to show that he was able to deliver the land, the word here denotes that which was miraculous, or which could be effected only by Yahweh.
And now back to me,
The translators frequently use words that are worth noting, because alternative meanings are still possible, unless I run around thinking that the depth of all scripture is in the pen opf the translator, which I don't on this verse and others. It was not a promise to the person to witness in His lifetime. God was not even concerned with that. And so, God told him through Isaiah that He was going to do something. And He did it. But Ahaz was left out of the mix, having no faith, even denying the desire to hear any kind of thing from God. He was in error in his interpretation of what 'tempting the Lord' was.
2006-10-28 23:15:58
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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The events of Isaiah 7:14 refer to Isaiah's wife and the birth of his child. This is also a typology of what comes later with Mary and Jesus. Most prophecy in the Bible has an immediate fulfillment and a later, more complete one.
2006-10-28 23:23:08
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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I believe the virgin referred to in the passage you just posted is Mary, mother of Jesus.
As for the Isaiah knowing of the birth of Jesus, I was taught that the Holy Spirit speaks through prophets, and the Holy Spirit is God, therefore God would know of such things.
2006-10-28 23:18:35
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answer #4
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answered by Chervil 2
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Isaiah 7:14 - Therefore Jehovah (GOD) himself will give you men a sign: Look! The maiden (MARY) herself will actually become pregnant, and she is giving birth to a son (JESUS) , and she will certainly call his name Immanuel (JESUS).
Your bible says virgin...mine says maiden..same thing...she was a virgin when God's angel impregnated her with God's son.
The child wasn't referred to as the virgin...his mother was...and she didn't remain a virgin after Jesus birth...after she married Joseph...then Jesus was born..then she had other children with Joseph.
2006-10-28 23:25:02
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answer #5
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answered by debbie2243 7
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Isaiah is full of prophecies. And the virgin being referred to is Mary, not Jesus.
2006-10-28 23:19:18
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answer #6
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answered by flashypsw 4
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I don't think Isaiah 7:14 says me was a virgin. My answer is it says he doesn't get out much. Read the bible again.
2006-10-28 23:18:48
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answer #7
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answered by sweetirsh 5
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God has been very merciful to the Israelites.All through time,since Adam,God has given them men of God that spoke for him.
This was for the ones that kept the sayings of the men of God.
Prophesies.It was told to Adam all the way until Jesus birth.
2006-10-28 23:43:24
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answer #8
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answered by jackiedj8952 5
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They are prophetic. Isaiah was a prophet and many of his writings prophesy the birth of Christ as well as the end times.
2006-10-28 23:16:00
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answer #9
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answered by nursechic 3
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Okay....back then those guys lived to be like 5 and 600 years old.
Wasn't Moses like 800 or something?
Why you look so deep to question the Word of God?
It's not to question, but to believe. And have faith. I'm not saying you shouldn't question as to learn....but it seems you're trying to find flaw. Have you no faith?
God Bless you ! ! !
2006-10-28 23:20:28
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answer #10
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answered by Sweetea 4
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