Man conceives all gods; therefore, gods do not exist outside of human fantasy.
Please state the name of the informal logical fallacy.
2006-10-28 10:10:14 · 4 answers · asked by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Sounds like begging the question: a type of fallacy occurring in deductive reasoning in which the proposition to be proved is assumed implicitly or explicitly in one of the premises.
2006-10-28 10:15:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
I forget what it's called, but the conclusion doesn't follow from the presupposition. You need to add the presupposition "things that man can conceive only exist inside of human fantasy" in order to make this a logical argument. The problem with that for the argument is that clearly the second (left out) presupposition is false. In other words, the stated argument really goes like this:
1. things that man conceive only exist inside of human fantasy.
2. man conceives all gods
3. therefore gods do not exist outside of human fantasy.
The conclusion is false because supposition #1 is false (or at least is unproven by the argument)
2006-10-28 17:16:33 · answer #2 · answered by KDdid 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Restating the antecedent.
2006-10-28 17:18:43 · answer #3 · answered by The Chaos Within 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
gods? there is only "one" God.
2006-10-28 17:11:24 · answer #4 · answered by yeppers 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋