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Matthew 27:9
Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying, And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was valued, whom they of the children of Israel did value;

I'm looking through Jeremiah, but I can't find anything like it.


I did find something like it in Zechariah

11:12-13
So they weighed for my price thirty pieces of silver. And the LORD said unto me, Cast it unto the potter: a goodly price that I was prized at of them. And I took the thirty pieces of silver, and cast them to the potter in the house of the LORD.

2006-10-28 09:21:21 · 9 answers · asked by skeptic 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Did Matthew misquote here?

2006-10-28 09:25:49 · update #1

Sorry Buffy and Suzanne: I looked at those you gave and it doesn't say anythink like that.

2006-10-28 09:48:56 · update #2

9 answers

Most Bible scholars agree that Matthew is quoting from a combination of texts, yet giving credit only to Jeremiah. The combination of Scripture is from Zechariah 11:12-13 (which you have already shown us) and Jeremiah 19:1-13 (or perhaps Jeremiah 18:2-12, or even Jeremiah 32:6-9).

Other Bible scholars believe that this may have been a copyist error.

This is not the only supposed misquote in the New Testament. Mark 1:2-3 attributes the quote to Isaiah, but is actually quoting both Malachi 3:1 and Isaiah 40:3, yet only gives the credit to Isaiah.

These issues have been dealt with before, and the Christian faith remains strong, even though its detractors have done everything to rid the earth of it.

2006-10-29 08:15:37 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Jamieson, Fausset, Brown has the following commentary:
"Then was fulfilled that which was spoken by Jeremy the prophet, saying--(Zechariah 11:12,13). Never was a complicated prophecy, otherwise hopelessly dark, more marvellously fulfilled. Various conjectures have been formed to account for Matthew's ascribing to Jeremiah a prophecy found in the book of Zechariah. But since with this book he was plainly familiar, having quoted one of its most remarkable prophecies of Christ but a few chapters before (Matthew 21:4,5), the question is one more of critical interest than real importance. Perhaps the true explanation is the following, from LIGHTFOOT: "Jeremiah of old had the first place among the prophets, and hereby he comes to be mentioned above all the rest in Matthew 16:14; because he stood first in the volume of the prophets [as he proves from the learned DAVID KIMCHI] therefore he is first named. When, therefore, Matthew produceth a text of Zechariah under the name of JEREMY, he only cites the words of the volume of the prophets under his name who stood first in the volume of the prophets. Of which sort is that also of our Saviour (Luke 24:41), "All things must be fulfilled which are written of Me in the Law, and the Prophets, and the Psalms," or the Book of Hagiographa, in which the Psalms were placed first.""

2006-10-28 10:33:22 · answer #2 · answered by BC 6 · 0 0

Verses 7-10
And they took counsel, and bought with them the potter's field, to bury strangers in. Wherefore, that field was called, The field of blood, unto this day. Then was fulfilled that which was spoken through Jeremiah the prophet, saying, And they took the thirty pieces of silver, the price of him that was priced, whom certain of the children of Israel did price; and they gave them for the potter's field, as the Lord hath appointed me.

Still ignorant of what they were doing, the enemies of Jesus continued to fulfill Zechariah's prophecy (Zechariah 11:12,13); Judas cast the money "in the house of the Lord," and they made it "unto the potter."

Acts 1:19 gives the Aramaic name for the field, popularly known as Akeldama.

"Jeremiah" was the name of a larger grouping of the Hebrew Scriptures which contained both Jeremiah and Zechariah, along with other books including all the minor prophets. Thus, Matthew is guilty of no error in the use of the term "Jeremiah." An equivalent case today would be a quotation credited to "Romans" or to the "New Testament." Some commentators believe that Matthew quoted from some of the traditional sayings of Jeremiah, since it is not said that Jeremiah wrote the saying but that he spoke it. The quotation, exhibiting several variations from the words in Zechariah, may then be understood either as an exact quotation from Jeremiah, now lost, or a paraphrase of Zechariah. In any case, the objection is not important.

The exact fulfillment of Zechariah's prophecy by the betrayal events is fully discussed under Matthew 26:15. As for the alleged contradiction between the Acts and Matthew accounts of the manner of Judas' death and the persons purchasing the field, note the following:



MATTHEW
He departed and went away and hanged himself ... The chief priests took the silver ... and bought with them the potter's field to bury strangers in.

ACTS
Now this man obtained a field with the reward of his iniquity; and falling headlong, he burst asunder in the midst, and all his bowels gushed out.
Haley said:



Neither of these statements excludes the other. Matthew does not deny that Judas, after hanging himself, fell and burst asunder; Luke does not assert that Judas did not hang himself prior to his fall. Probably the circumstances are much as follows: Judas suspended himself from a tree on the brink of the precipice overhanging the valley of Himmon, and the limb or the rope gave way; and he fell and was mangled as described in Acts. F1
If Judas hanged himself, as plainly said, the only way he could have come down was by falling, or by tender and loving removal at the hands of others. To say that he did not fall, as plainly said, one would have to be able to affirm that some person or persons prevented it. Furthermore, if the body remained suspended until it fell of natural causes, which was likely, the bursting of the body as it fell would have been a certainty.

Now, note the so-called contradiction in Acts which ascribes the obtaining of the field to JUDAS as contrasted with Matthew's recording that the "PRIESTS bought the potter's field." This too is one of those artificial "contradictions" So delightful to skeptics. Since Judas provided the money to buy the field, it is highly proper to say that he "obtained" it. That the actual purchase and arranging of the legal transfer of the property was done by the priests makes it true also that they actually "bought" it. Today, on the campuses of a thousands colleges, are buildings "bought" by various donors whose names are inscribed on the buildings; yet in every case, it was the college or university which literally "bought" the building, signing all the contracts, making the legal transfers, etc. Furthermore, if a donor dies before all the legal details are completed, he is still said to have "given" or "obtained" for the school the new student center, or dormitory, or science building. That the same purchase is under consideration in both Matthew and Acts is implicit in the name "field of blood," which is the same in both.

2006-10-28 09:43:59 · answer #3 · answered by deacon 6 · 1 0

This is actually a quote of prophesies given by Jeramiah AND Zechariah. Jeremiah's portion is Matt. 27:10.

Jer. 32:6-9 is what you're looking for.

Remember, the prophecy is fulfilled by Matt. 27:8.

Peace.

2006-10-28 09:27:03 · answer #4 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0 0

Actually, Matthew is referring to Jeremiah 19.

2006-10-28 09:26:51 · answer #5 · answered by Buffy 5 · 0 0

howdy! particular, it style of alludes to that below the Mosaic regulation. whilst God chosen the Israelites as his human beings, polygamy already existed between them, regardless of the undeniable fact that it curiously became lots greater consumer-friendly to have only one spouse. God did no longer require households to break up the place there became better than one spouse. rather, he strictly regulated the prepare.—Exodus 21:10, eleven; Deuteronomy 21:15-17. That this toleration of polygamy became purely momentary could be seen no longer purely via what Jesus stated related to God’s unique common for marriage yet additionally via what the apostle Paul wrote below the muse of God’s holy spirit. He stated: “enable each and each guy have his very own spouse and each and each lady have her very own husband.” (one million Corinthians 7:2) Paul additionally became inspired to jot down that any guy appointed as an overseer or a ministerial servant interior the Christian congregation might desire to be “a husband of one spouse.”—one million Timothy 3:2, 12; Titus one million:6. wish that helps! Have a marvelous day! Luv ya, Tashi :)

2016-11-26 01:09:11 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

That is correct. Apparently Matthew thought it was in Jeremiah and he wrote Zachariah

2006-10-28 09:32:59 · answer #7 · answered by Jay Z 6 · 0 1

I'm really not sure what you are looking for but here is a great website that you can look up passages by key word or topic.

http://www.biblegateway.com/

2006-10-28 09:26:19 · answer #8 · answered by Stiletto ♥ 6 · 0 0

Yes it is in Zechariah.You are right.

2006-10-28 09:28:08 · answer #9 · answered by jackiedj8952 5 · 0 1

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