2006-10-28 07:48:26 · 5 answers · asked by johnala 3 in Business & Finance ➔ Credit
Yes.
2006-10-28 07:50:55 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Their are 2 main factors here:
1. Was the deceased spouse solely liable for the debt before death, or were the spouses jointly liable.
2. Are there any assets that were owned jointly by the spouses that can be used to pay the debts.
California is a community property state. This means any property acquired after the marriage belongs to both spouses. I think the same applies to debt. As I understand the rules, the surviving spouse would be responsible for all debts incurred after the marriage. Any debts incurred by the deceased spouse could result in a claim against any joint assets. This would include any property not owned individually by the surviving spouse before the marriage.
2006-10-28 17:45:28 · answer #2 · answered by STEVEN F 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, this is why you should always have life insurance.
2006-10-28 14:51:24 · answer #3 · answered by bcdestroya 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If they are in charge of their estate.
2006-10-31 22:49:12 · answer #4 · answered by luciousgreeneyedlady 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not responsible if he left no money for the spouse.
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2006-10-28 19:36:42 · answer #5 · answered by bijan816 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋