2006-10-28 06:17:48 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
no, yes please come back to reality.
2006-10-28 06:20:25 · answer #1 · answered by fvdvdv 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No. The definition of warlock means from Old English, "oathbreaker." It is a term deemed for males who practice the dark arts of the occult. Many will state they are not a warlock simply because they are a "Witch" or a "Pagan" and do not harm to anyone. Yet, the fact is this..the truth is this...if one does not follow the ways God set before us, they are breaking the law. And if one promises to follow the law, and does not, they are breaking an oath. So one who is a male and practices such ways is a warlock, plain and simple. However, Jesus was not because He walked as God does. He performed miracles because He was God in human form. There was no sin, no oathbreaking; therefore, He was not, and still is not, a warlock.
2006-10-28 13:32:42 · answer #2 · answered by EoC 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Good question. it depends on what the definitions of witchcraft and sorcery and wizardry are! All three words have definitions that are the same. a warlock is actually a witch that has left a coven if I remember correctly. ???
But in order for Jesus to be Spotless and Blameless and without Sin. He would have to be NOT guilty of witchraft and sorcery. Therefore he never did practice these secret occults.
The bible says God Hates speaking with hand signs. Yet the deaf and hearing impaired NEED to speak with their hands to communicate.
Jesus said very clearly, that HE HAS NO POWER! and yet with a word people are healed and the blind see and lame walk.
The answer is NO he was not a warlock.
2006-10-28 13:24:41 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It depends on your definition of a warlock, but, all I know of is that a warlock is a male witch. If Jesus Christ healed the sick, raised people from the dead and drove out demons from sick people, then he was the warlock of his day. It is all in how see things and even believed in them too.
2006-10-28 13:21:37 · answer #4 · answered by marcyfiorica 3 · 0⤊ 2⤋
It depends on the definition of warlock you use. In the popular definition, he was, for he was a male practitioner of good magick. However, if you look at it by the Wiccan definition, no, for a warlock is a "poisoner" or liar--not a man who practices magick.
2006-10-28 13:20:07 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 3⤋
i believe he would fit the criteria of warlock .. spiritualist etc
yes
2006-10-28 13:30:15 · answer #6 · answered by Peace 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No, he was a jew, and followed his fathers comandments, preached and used the heavenly spirit from his father to heal people. He never chanted, or used majic stuff, and the bible frowns upon majic. So how could jesus practice it?
2006-10-28 13:23:54 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
No!
He did not need, nor wanted power from the Devil and his demons, when he has the all powerful father, Jehovah!
2006-10-28 13:24:00 · answer #8 · answered by ? 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
He was just some guy who liked hangin' out with his buds.
2006-10-28 13:23:05 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
That is depend on your faith
in my believe I trust in HIM,
He is my LORD
2006-10-28 14:28:07 · answer #10 · answered by famRaa 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I though you were him
damm darn darn
2006-10-28 16:48:22 · answer #11 · answered by waiting for baby 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋