Say I buy a house for $100K whose price exactly keeps pace with inflation. If inflation runs at an average of 3% and if I own the house for 20 years, then in 20 years it will be worth 100K x (1.03)^20 or 181K. If I sold the house, I realize a (purely nominal) gain of $81K, but in reality I'd still need the entire $181K to buy a house of comparable value 20 years down the road (assuming they also appreciated at the rate of inflation). Isn't the tax on the ‘phantom gain’ of $81K unethical since it confiscates part of the purchasing power I tied up when I originally bought the house? It seems to me that this argument would apply to *any* capital asset held for a significant number of years in an inflationary environment, even in a "low inflation" environment like the one we have now. Am I missing something here, or is this blatantly unfair?
2006-10-27
16:25:40
·
4 answers
·
asked by
polyglot_1234
3
in
Business & Finance
➔ Taxes
➔ United States