It doesn't technically. The adultry commandment refered to a married woman having sex with a man other than her lawful husband or a man having sex with a married woman. Under the Hebrew laws at the time the ten commandments were received by Moses that was considered a property crime as a married woman was the property of her husband, as she had been the property of her father before marriage. It was not uncommon for a couple that had been betrothed to be expecting a child before the actual wedding, in fact, originally, that was what a betrothal was for, to see if children could be produced. During that historical time period brothels were legitimate businesses and there was no moral restrictions on them. The were frequented by both single and married men and ANY single woman could work in one without shame. It was not until much later that the idea of virginity became highly prized and any sex outside of marriage (including pre-marital sex) was considered immoral and sinful. This came about as the human body became something to be controlled rather than enjoyed.
2006-10-26 21:51:14
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answer #1
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answered by kveldulfgondlir 5
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Holy Bible, Hebrews 13:4
2006-10-27 04:38:29
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answer #2
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answered by lilbaton 3
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Hebrews13:4
2006-10-27 04:31:47
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answer #3
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answered by devsmash 2
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People at all times and regardless of their sanctimonious ideas about religious rights and wrongs have 'fornicated'. The more religious ones among us, married or not, clergy or not, but especially those folks using the fairy tales in the bible to justify their so-called moral values, are usually the worst offenders, not because I think that 'fornication' is a sin, but because their sin is hypocrisy.
2006-10-27 10:51:10
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answer #4
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answered by Dr. Phil 6
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There is not a specific reference to premarital sex. Although the references mentioned do talk about sexual practices, they either are related to adultery or jewish social code, which was primarly concerned with incest taboo. The jewish social code, which has the most sexual regulations only makes a point of not having relations which would dishonor your father and the classic reference to homosexuality, which is only important in the context that it did not enhance the size of the tribe. None of these social codes specifically say, dont have sex with a woman who isnt of your family before you are married. Faith traditions since then have made the necesary jump to include this in their social codes.
2006-10-27 04:39:14
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answer #5
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answered by blindog23 4
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Apostle Paul said, But if they cannot contain, let them marry for it is better to marry than to burn. ......
This verse is referring to fornication.
Then Paul continues on by saying....." I die daily".
Paul preached and practiced abstinence by putting his body (the flesh) under submission daily and with prayer.
OTHER VERSES:
1 Corinthians 6:18 - Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.
1 Corinthians 7:2 - Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband
2006-10-27 05:10:46
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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The word is fornication, sex or such personal acts without marriage. You will see this mentioned throughout the bible.
2006-10-27 04:29:11
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answer #7
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answered by AJ 4
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I say it's in Sodom amd Gomorrah I would image the people there were involved in a little bit of everthing and we all know how that turned out. (in the cities) Genesis 19 verse 15
2006-10-27 05:04:20
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answer #8
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answered by tracy211968 6
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Genesis 29:21 Then Jacob said to Laban, "Give me my wife. My time is completed, and I want to lie with her."
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He waited for the woman.
2006-10-27 04:35:55
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Actually it's pretty specific about any sexual act that doesn't constitute making a family. Sodomy (anal sex) and fornication (sex before marriage) are forbidden by it.
Note: I'm not religious, I'm just saying what is written.
2006-10-27 04:48:07
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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