I need help dating back the immigration laws to when the pilgrams landed here, I can't seem to find any.
2006-10-26 16:44:25 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
In 1620 there were no immigration laws in North America and quite possibly none in any other part of the world.
Various other countries probably had immigration policies, but the laws as we know them most likely didn't exist.
The Romans had some very specific policies regarding citizenship, and many countries patterned their citizenship policies after those.
2006-10-26 16:53:19 · answer #1 · answered by Warren D 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
That's the argument that the white's (of which I'm one) use to excuse their ancestors for coming here to a country that was NOT THEIRS and taking land that was NOT THEIRS and using the Native Americans (those Savages!) to learn how to LIVE HERE before DEPORTING THEM to reservations where they live to this day! Another argument they like to use is "that was so long ago!" So I guess it doesn't "count" right?
2006-10-26 17:58:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
When the Pilgrims landed, the Indians, to their everlasting regret, hadn't seen a need for any immigration laws. Otherwise, the Pilgrims might have been considered illegal immigrants and been deported!
2006-10-26 16:48:33 · answer #3 · answered by worldinspector 5 · 1⤊ 2⤋
There's a good reason for that...Native American tribes were not cohesive enough to be worried about foreign policy.
2006-10-26 16:48:10 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
have you tried finding it on the Internet. you can usually find any thing on the net.
2006-10-26 16:52:18 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
AGREE WITH PAMELA AND COULD NOT HAVE PUT IT BETTER.
2006-10-26 19:25:17 · answer #6 · answered by QUE PASA?? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
your right, there was none at that time.
2006-10-26 16:47:09 · answer #7 · answered by ? 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
lmao... very nice
2006-10-26 16:49:36 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋