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then are we not bound to follow it explicity? I mean to be pleasing to God?

2006-10-26 09:56:31 · 13 answers · asked by Southern Apostolic 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Hayden, I am here for you. Really.

2006-10-26 10:13:00 · update #1

13 answers

you crack me up!

2006-10-26 10:08:29 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The King James Version is as close to perfect as can come, but it is not perfect.

There is No way to really, totally translate effectively information from the original Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic into English.

These languages are Very detailed, giving many definitions for one single word, while the English is very narrow; so the best (which is never really accurate enough according to the Hebrew, Greek and Aramaic Scriptures) word must be chosen in the English language.

If one does read the King James Version of the Bible, to obtain a correct understanding of what it is saying(what God is trying to say to you),
one Must have a Strong's Concordance and a Young's Concordance of the Bible with them and Use it - with every word within every scripture in the Bible. If one does not, their interpretation will be Incorrect!! The Strongs and the Youngs Concordance of the Bible gives ALL the original meanings from the Hebrew, Greek, and the Aramaic.

Do religious people that write in, concerning the bible, and their opinions concerning Christianity and Scripture use these concordances, or are they giving incorrect information? Only they can answer this for themselves!!

2006-10-26 17:08:05 · answer #2 · answered by Thomas 6 · 1 0

KJV Bible 1611 published + 303 years = 1914 CE an excepted translation after this.

Any one of the translations that do the word justice is fine, but 1914 + 300 = 2214 CE will it be 300 years old and be an excepted translation and Christ second coming still be expected? It is now 2006 after Christ and 2612 after Babylon #3 world Empire.

Daniel was 3460 after Adam and 606 before Christ when he gave Satan 2520 years after Babylon the 3rd world Empire to the end of the 7th world Empire [ 2520 less 606 is 1914 CE the marked year as end of 7th Empire for Satan and Dan.12:1-13 and Rev.12:6-11,12 became a reality and Satan was cast out of heaven [ Rev.17:10-14 is Satan in the 8th ] when the KJV Bible is age 303 years of age, and does Satan have a short time after 5,980 years from Eden.
The truth was to be in circulation Dan.8:12-14 2300 after Daniel, from 1694 CE and it was, so 300 years to be excepted by the majority is 1994 CE, will the children born to this generation, pass away before the second coming of Christ?
If Satan has 6,130 years from Eden and we are 6,072 after Eden in the year 2006, to the second coming of Christ to end Satan in the world Matt.3-36-38 and only God knows the day and the hour, he could cut it short [ but if 6,130 years, the day and hour is still not known ], for Rev.20:1-6 the 1000 year reign of Christ to began as Eph.2:7; 3:21 the world with Jesus is without end. He makes all as perfect as it was before Eden.

2006-10-26 20:00:56 · answer #3 · answered by jeni 7 · 0 0

There are those in the religious world that claim that the KJV is the only inspired version of the Bible. The KJV is as close to being a perfect translation as one can get. The only perfect Bible is that of the original manuscripts written in Hebrew/Greek/Aramaic.

I wouldn't say that the KJV was 100% perfect but I would go as far as to say that there are no errors in it when it comes to Spiritual truths.

2006-10-26 17:20:10 · answer #4 · answered by bro_ken128 3 · 0 0

All bible translations are at the most 3-4 times removed from the original manuscript. If we are to accept the bible as the written word of God, penned by men that were under the guidance of the Holy Spirit, then regardless of mens errors we have to accept it as completely true. Even though there was no punctuation, chapters and verses when the bible was written does not invalidate the word of God. The written word of God is God breathed, therefore, God's Spirit is in the word of God making it a living word. When we read the bible that means that there is a spirit to Spirit connection made with the Holy Spirit to help us understand God's point of view. Does this mean we always get it right? No, it means that if we will draw near to God, He will draw near to us.

For example "The Lord's Prayer. When the disciples asked Jesus how to pray, this is the prayer He gave them. The church, worldwide, teaches this prayer as a prayer for the born again Christian. When Jesus gave this prayer to His disciples He gave it as a prayer for non-christian Jews who beleived in God to pray. The new covenant between God and man was not established yet. Jesus was still alive. We know this because Jesus said that as a beleiver, if we ask it of Him He will do it. In this we are asking Jesus to interceed to the Father that He might grant our request. Jesus also states that we are to pray to the Father and that we are to finish our request with asking it in the name of Jesus. The result of our doing this is that our heavenly Father will answer our prayer. My point is that God has honored this form of prayer because of the heart and intent of the beleiver praying, even though we are not following the guidelines Jesus has given us. As Christians we are under the covenant of grace not the law and on the day of judgement we are going to be judged according to our heart (intent), not our actions.

By your question are you trying to promote legalism much like the pharisees in the days of old?

If not please make your question more clear.

2006-10-26 17:40:23 · answer #5 · answered by David R 3 · 0 0

the kjv is not perfect but whatever the version we should utilise it to please god. the kjv does not have all the texts of the catholic bible which all other versions edited by lesser qualified interpreters. following explicity should however always be practiced to the best of your ability.

2006-10-26 17:02:28 · answer #6 · answered by fenian1916 5 · 0 0

brother if i told you no would you cry that i am being too much of
a sinner..................remember that the bible is

b asic
i nstructions
b efore
l eaving
e arth

it is the righteousness of jesus that is transfered to us who believe in him - no man is able to follow the bible perfectly.
the bible says that the letter kills but the spirit gives life.
grace is what i am talking about.

2006-10-26 17:03:25 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

No translation of the bible is perfect because of the faceted meanings in Greek and Hebrew. But, it's message is clear, and it is part of our daily bread.

2006-10-26 16:59:49 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

Run an Internet search on a document titled "Open letter to Dr. Laura" It may help you answer your question.

2006-10-26 16:59:13 · answer #9 · answered by jedi1josh 5 · 1 1

Belief in the Bible as the sole rule of faith is itself flawed, so why worry about it?

2006-10-26 20:44:53 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

GOD is only perfect----Let God guide you through the bible

2006-10-26 17:00:04 · answer #11 · answered by yeppers 5 · 1 0

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