There will be no difference if there is no equivalence.
2006-10-25 22:49:19 · 6 answers · asked by The Knowledge Server 1 in Arts & Humanities ➔ Philosophy
Listen up you you monk. Of course there's no difference if there's no equivalence. Check this out. How could you tell that two things are the same unless you had something different to compare them to. So without something to compare to then you have no equals. Duh!
2006-10-25 22:52:17 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Equivalence skill suitable interchangability. in case your bicycle breaks, and also you purchase a change area, it really is a change if it does each and every area the unique did. If its function has similarities, then it really is a function equivalent or a mechanical equivalent area. distinction skill an component to lack of identicality. It a measured incongruity or lack of same-ness. in case your bicycle tire went flat, and also to procure a change tire that became meant for an motorized vehicle, then the version can make your change area not artwork. A distinction is the option of an equivalence. they are antonyms. The fact is subsequently incorrect.
2016-12-05 06:04:27 · answer #2 · answered by rushford 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You have almost got me stumped. But I'll prefer grappling with your question. To equate to people we ought to find similarities between the two people and that is only possible by looking at the differences between them and the other people. Your intelligently put across point of view can be looked at from two different angles - onewould be based upon the similarities and the other basen upon the differences. The perspective from which you want to see it would decide whether the answer is as you have stated in your question or is the other way around.
2006-10-26 00:22:19 · answer #3 · answered by Akshat Mehta Panjab University 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Symmetry is an abstract concept, idea, or object, that displays the property of "unchanged proportions" as manifold changes are applied to it.
In basic terms, it is the property of an entity that comprises both identity and change, similarity and difference, X and not-X
A thing that is both X and not-X appears to be a contradiction though. Unless of course, steps in the logic require that we define a necessary parent relation that subsumes the union of both X and not-X. Consequently, symmetry breaking phenomena are collectively and statistically representative of a mean[parent] symmetry relation that encompasses a higher order unity of the subsumed "parts of the whole" .
2006-10-25 23:08:59 · answer #4 · answered by DREAMER 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Of course not. Equivalence by difinition means no difference.
2006-10-26 15:13:26 · answer #5 · answered by Sophist 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, if you say!!
2006-10-25 23:57:10 · answer #6 · answered by small 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋