And if so, then why do we make laws against people who harm no one? And aren't those laws themselves criminal by this definition?
2006-10-25
19:17:25
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7 answers
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asked by
hercule
1
in
Politics & Government
➔ Law & Ethics
Yeah, fraud, deceit, that's force as well. And negligence, that's the breaking of an implied or even explicit contract. So we've discovered that the breaking of contracts is another basic form of crime. Anything else?
2006-10-25
20:02:42 ·
update #1
catie6206: You really don't get it do you? There has to be a reasonable basis for a law before it is made a law. Otherwise it is unjust and must be repealed. The law doesn't own people, people create and control the law with their brains. It doens't come from aliens, gods, or animals.
2006-10-26
09:34:38 ·
update #2