2006-10-25 06:35:41 · 37 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
yeah, if you have a brain anurysm
2006-10-25 06:58:42 · answer #1 · answered by hilario v 2 · 0⤊ 3⤋
1+1=2
2006-10-25 06:44:47 · answer #2 · answered by lilbeccah 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
1+1 = 11
2006-10-25 06:44:18 · answer #3 · answered by jay j 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I tried it out on my Excel spreadsheet. I had a 1 in cell A1 and a 1 in cell A2. In cell A3 I put in +A1+A2 . I got 3 as the answer.
It happened that I had the cell width at 2.33. I changed that to 3. I then got 1.4+1.3 = 2.7 .
So 1+1=3 if you omit some of the details. Or 1+1 = 3 for large values of 1 and for small values of 3.
2006-10-26 16:00:21 · answer #4 · answered by alnitaka 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
You can if you choose to ignore the laws of mathematics and divide by zero, doing so you the following proof is valid:
Given: a=b
Prove 1+1=3
a=b (Given)
a^2=ab (multiply by a)
a^2-b^2=ab-b^2 (add b^2 to both sides)
(a+b)(a-b)=b(a-b) (Factor)
a+b=b (Divide by a-b. Because a=b then a-b equals zero, so you are setting 0/0 equal to 1 which is fine only if you are taking a limit as a approches b or vice-versae, which we are not doing)
a+a=a (Substitute)
1+1=1 (Divide by a)
1+1+1=1+1 (Add 1 to each side)
3=1+1 (Simplification of one side)
2006-10-25 10:13:40 · answer #5 · answered by mediaptera 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
1+1=1+1+1?
1+1=2
1+1=2^1
(1+1=3
1=3-1
1=2,WHICH IS MATHEMATICALLY WRONG.)
2006-10-25 06:52:51 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes..
When a man get married with a woman. Initially it will be a baby
so, 1+1 = 3
2006-10-25 06:45:28 · answer #7 · answered by YourDreamDoc 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
I forget where I heard it, but I remember a "joke" (if you can call math humor jokes):
"2+2=5 for sufficiently large values of 2."
So the corrolary is that 1+1=3 for sufficiently large values of 1.
2006-10-25 06:38:25 · answer #8 · answered by dsr 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is often a phrase used by marketing professionals to define synergies. It you can leverage mutual benefits out of 1+1, then the outcome will be greater than 2. Mathematically, the answer is no.
2006-10-25 06:39:48 · answer #9 · answered by BusinessGuy 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Only for very large quantitis of 1...
I know old joke....
Seriously higher level mathmatics and real world probabilities can make this statement true when the principle of Signifigance is applied.
But for all but the theorectical and highly chaotic systems...
1 + 1 =2
2006-10-25 06:38:47 · answer #10 · answered by Kaustaub 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
it equals what we agree that it equals. That is the beauty of maths. In the group we usually use, it =2. But we could define 1 as the number a where a+a=3a, and a*x=x (where x any other number).
2006-10-25 06:39:37 · answer #11 · answered by cpinatsi 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋