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Is this true? I got this in an answer from another user.

Before it was known as the King James Version it was known as the Antioch manuscripts..People could have them read to them.Antioch is where the Apostles were(Acts 11:26)They used the King James as well.God bless

http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index;_ylt=ArGjQMWj456TJO1JqwGUDWzsy6IX?qid=20061023195745AANTmMg


It is confusing, because I thought the KJV was 1611, and the Apostles were the first century.

2006-10-24 15:53:00 · 19 answers · asked by Southern Apostolic 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

19 answers

You were right, and somebody lied to you. I am a former Roman Catholic, and, since being in Evangelical Protestant circles for the past 25 years, have discovered that our side have traditional sacred cows as well, and the KJV is one for the KJV only crowd.

No, the original copies of the scriptures were not in the "Authorized" King James Version. I have shown the 1611 edition (the original KJV) to those who are KJV only, and they have told me they would not want to use it on a regular basis. I have also shocked many of them when I have shown them that the current KJV actually uses the word "piss" in Isaiah 36:11.

The 1611 KJV was translated from Erasmus Greek translations of the Scriptures, which he had edited. Since there was no Greek translation of the book of the Revelation, Rasmes actually translated the Roman Catholic Latin Vulgate back into Greek to finish his edition. So, the KJV is actuall a translation of another scholars edition of the Holy Scriptures. It was not, contrary to what many of the old time Bible thumpers would say, the edition that, "Was good enough for Paul and Silas."

Here's a question to ask KJV only people. Do you believe in doing mission work. If so, then what do you do with those in cultures who do not speak English, when you are trying to get the Bible into their hands?

2006-10-24 16:09:21 · answer #1 · answered by rhino 6 · 1 1

The apostles never used the bible. The bible as we now know it was compiled around the first half of the third century under orders of the roman emperor Constantine. A pagan who worshiped the sun god until his death.

It was kept for the next 1300 years by the roman catholic church. The KJV was created under the reign of, Who else, King James in the 1600s. This nonsense about the bible being handed down directly from the apostles is wishful thinking. It is a slightly revised roman catholic document of suspicious origin.
One that is not seen as the word of God by the Hebrews, the ones who are the true heirs of the scripture used in the bible. Many think the apostles wrote the new testament. This is not true. Some of The letters of Paul may actually have been written by him, but Paul was not an apostle and he never knew Jesus. He liked to call him self an apostle because it gave him a certain ring of authority. The four gospels attributed to Mathew mark Luke and John were just that attributed. They were written years after the original apostles had died.

Sorry to disappoint, but this is all quite easy to research. Don't take my word for it there are some very learned biblical scholars who have written some very informative books on this subject.

Love and blessings Don

2006-10-24 16:07:10 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If, by "the King James Version" you mean the translation of the Bible into English commissioned by King James then, no, the Apostles could not possibly have used it. If, however, you mean that the KJV used, as its basis, the same manuscripts that the Apostles might have read, then that is a somewhat different question. My understanding is that the Old Testament of the KJV was based on the Masoretic texts (Hebrew and Aramaic) and the New Testament (which was written/compiled after the apostles died...) was translated from a late Byzantine (Greek) version. I am really not sure on the exact timeline, but I think that the Masoretic texts were much later than the time of the apostles -- maybe they were using the Septuagint or one of many earlier (and since lost) versions.

2006-10-24 16:06:45 · answer #3 · answered by coreyander 3 · 0 0

The Apostles used the Septuagint. In the ancient manuscripts of the New Testament - 85% of the quotes from the Old Testament in the New Testament were taken from this Greek version. The KJV could not have been used by the Apostles because as you stated, it was not published until 1611. It was an inaccurate English translation of the Bible. When compared to the ancient manuscripts such as the Dead Sea Scrolls, the KJV has almost 11,000 translation errors. Use the Douay-Rheims version for an accurate "English" translation - it's a direct translation from St. Jerome's Latin Vulgate (the first Bible put under one cover, in one book form in 405 A.D.)

2006-10-24 16:08:01 · answer #4 · answered by CMT 1 · 0 0

NNnnnnno. There was no "Bible" as such until the 5th century. The young churches (such as Antioch) would have used the Old Testament, plus various collected stories, manuscripts and letters that would eventually make up the New Testament. We know them today as the various Books of the Apostles (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, etc.) plus the letters to the churches (most of which were written by Paul).

There are many well-meaning young Christians who want to join in discussions, and often don't know the exact history behind what they're saying. Take these things with a grain of salt. Christianity requires some scholarship for understanding. :)

2006-10-24 15:58:53 · answer #5 · answered by roberticvs 4 · 2 0

This is a little bit of "apocrypha" that is associated with the King James Version of the Bible, promulgated by some who believe that the AV means "Author's Version."

In reality, the Apostles used the Hebrew Torah, and other sacred books. The Bible as we know it did not exist in the time of the Apostles, but was collected and codified around 200 AD.

2006-10-24 16:01:24 · answer #6 · answered by jbtascam 5 · 0 0

No No No. The Bible in use at the time of Jesus and the Apostles was called the Septuagint. It was the Greek translation. We know this because when Paul speaks Scripture versus what he says does not make any sense in the Aramaic or Hebrew language but in the Greek language it is word for word. After Jerusalem was sacked by Nebuchadnezzar and alot of the Jews scattered, after a period of time not everyone spoke the Hebrew language or the Aramaic language but because of the necessity of trade they all could speak Greek just about so this was what was mainly used.

2006-10-24 18:07:22 · answer #7 · answered by Midge 7 · 0 0

The KJv is a well known translation full of translation errors like most others. Regardless of the errors the gist is still accurate. Here are a few brief notes about the KJV. An important note that must be made about the KJV translators; they did not understand the Feasts of Yah in any way, that’s why there are so many errors in regards to them. They, the Roman Catholic Jesuits involved also hated King James. One of the most common obvious errors in the KJV is its use of the word “ghost” instead of “spirit”. The Spirit of the Almighty can in no way be depicted as a ghost. This is mockery from the pit of hell! The Book called James is actually “Yacov” in Hebrew. Yacov does not mean James. It means Jacob/Yacob. They changed its name to James to honor King James. One of the more outrageous errors in the KJV is their interpretation of one of the Ten Commandments. “Thou shall not kill” is totally incorrect. It should read “Thou shall not murder”. There is a huge differance between killing and murder. Any lawyer or law court judge will tell you that. Murder is an unlawful killing. Exod. 20:13 “You shall not murder” (NAS) as compared to “Thou shall not kill” (KJV) In the book of Acts the KJV has a major error. They use the word “Easter”, instead of “Passover”. The word used here for Easter is used in all other scriptures correctly as “Passover”. Any amount of research will reveal that the name Easter comes from the goddess of Ishtar. Anyone who dares to call the Feast Of Passover, Easter, is mocking the Almighty. Satan works in strange ways, sometimes. Sorry, but no Jewish Rabbi would ever use the name Jesus unless he was explaining how incorrect it was. He would also never consider the Messiah on a cross. Yeshua died on a stake. I have all kinds of info on the KJV and New KJV. If your interested feel free to email me.

2016-05-22 12:00:21 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

What is known today as the Bible is a collection of 66 books-excepted as inspired Scriptures and often refered to as the Bible.
The first recorded books were from as far back as 1513 B.C.E. from Moses to shortly after 443B.C.E. these are the Hebrew scriptures.
The first century the Dead Sea Psalms Scroll was written and the last book was written about 98 C.E. by John.
The first book in the Greek scriptures was Mathew and it was translated from Hebrew to Greek in about the 4th century.
As to how the king James version came about that was taken from Stephanous" third addition of his Greek text in 1550 ,it became in effect the Textus Reseptus (Latin for received text) upon which was the bases for the 16th century Bible ,English version know as the King James Version (of 1611)

2006-10-24 16:21:18 · answer #9 · answered by ~♥ L ♥~ 4 · 0 1

KJV is the Bible that was interptite into English from Hebrew. King James wanted an addition of the bible that was made for him.

2006-10-24 15:57:36 · answer #10 · answered by Dragonpack 3 · 0 0

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