Does any New Testament author cite oral tradition as authoritative for doctrine?

Question

We must have some evidence that all of God’s revelation comes to us in written form.

The New Testament authors draw on oral tradition, but not so explicitly in support of doctrine.

Scripture states that God has provided for His church through "infallible Scripture.", Acts 20:32; 2 Timothy 3:15-17; Matthew 5:18; John 10:35; Acts 17:10-12; Isaiah 8:20; 40:8; etc.

Answer 1

The most obvious case of an Oral Tradition that is not directly commanded in Torah, but which is confirmed as a command by an Apostle would be the issue of women's head covering. See 1 Cor 11. While Written Torah doesn't directly command women to cover their heads it is implied by Numbers 5:18.

But that doesn't mean that Oral commands are invalid, you probably follow a number of practices that are never commanded in the Bible. For example, Adam established the practice of wearing clothing, but it was never commanded in Written Torah that we should wear clothing (unless you are a priest serving in the Tabernacle, in which case it is commanded). Peter was fishing naked with other men (John 21:7) and was not violating any command by doing so. Likewise the Prophet Isaiah was not violating any command by walking the streets naked for 3 years (Isaiah 20:2-3). Yet, I am sure that you follow the tradition of wearing clothing.

Similarly, Scripture speaks of weddings, but never tells you what is required for a wedding to occur. The wedding ceremony is entirely from Tradition.

Answer 2

okay so in Christ's day there were no printing presses, internet or other means to write everything.... how silly to compare then to now.

Scripture itself points out an authoritative church & tradition. St Paul points out in his second letter to the Thess – stand firm & hold to the traditions which you were taught by us, either by word of mouth or letter. Here are some scriptures to check out 2 Thess 2:15, 1 Cor 11:2, 2 Thess 3:6, 2 Tim 1:13-14 & 2:2. When the first Christians had disagreements they didn’t open their bibles – they didn’t exist – they held councils and held binding decrees – these councils were those who knew more then the others and they came to an agreement/understanding and thus made a binding decree (acts 15:1-29). The very books of the bible were determined by the Church (Rcc) and didn’t even happen until the 4th century – centuries of oral tradition. Without their determination and will to listen to the Holy Spirit, sent by God to inspire them there would be no bible.

Answer 3

No, but Jesus did condemn the scribes and Pharisess for using oral tradition to establish doctrine.

"In reply he said to them: “Why is it YOU also overstep the commandment of God because of YOUR tradition? For example, God said, ‘Honor your father and your mother’; and, ‘Let him that reviles father or mother end up in death.’ But YOU say, ‘Whoever says to his father or mother: “Whatever I have by which you might get benefit from me is a gift dedicated to God,” he must not honor his father at all.’ And so YOU have made the word of God invalid because of YOUR tradition. YOU hypocrites, Isaiah aptly prophesied about YOU, when he said, ‘This people honors me with their lips, yet their heart is far removed from me. It is in vain that they keep worshiping me, because they teach commands of men as doctrines.’” (Matthew 15:3-9)

So this would certainly make a case against doing so.

Answer 4

i think those verses pretty much sum it up. but also "thy word is a lamp unto my feet and a light unto my path"