For a angel went down at a certain time into the pool and stirred up the water; then whoever stepped in first, after the stirring of the water, was made well of whatever disease he had. NKJV John 5:4
2006-10-23 17:47:51 · 9 answers · asked by JESUSlover 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Either a typo or it was included with the previous verse...
2006-10-23 17:50:09 · answer #1 · answered by Adyghe Ha'Yapheh-Phiyah 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
There is broad agreement the verse is not original to the autograph, and in fact does not appear in the oldest and best manuscripts of John.
This is an example of text criticism, which attempts to get back to the original words of the author.
The NIV is a very conservative, overly literal translation put together by very conservative evangelicals. When the NIV agrees a verse should be expunged, then you can be sure the verse is a later insertion or corruption.
The most famous of these verses is the Comma Johannum, 1 John 5:7. It is a Trinitarian gloss (marginal comment) that accidently got incorporated into the Greek text when it was copied. It appears in only in a small number of very late manuscripts of the New Testament.
6 This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not by water only, but by water and blood. And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth.
7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.
8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.
If you compare later translations than the King James, you will see v. 7 is gone, usually with a footnote indicating why it is not there.
2006-10-24 09:24:06 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It technically is... if you look at the bottom of you bible it will give the 4th verse. John 5:4 NIV - "From time to time an angel of the Lord would come down and stir up the waters. The first one into the pool after each such disturbance would be cured of whatever disease he had." The NIV looks at the Oldest manuscripts that they have record of, and some versus arent in them. With the NKJV they may have not looked at the "oldest" manuscripts. This doesnt mean that it takes away any theological reference..
2006-10-24 00:55:21 · answer #3 · answered by underoath9138@sbcglobal.net 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Whoever said this wasn't in the Catholic Bible is goofy.
Here it is, from the Douay-Rheims Catholic Bible, the one published just a few years prior to the KJV:
John 5:4 And an angel of the Lord descended at certain times into the pond and the water was moved. And he that went down first into the pond after the motion of the water was made whole of whatsoever infirmity he lay under.
2006-10-24 20:36:20 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
My NIV study Bible says that researchers and experts have determined that "verse 4 was inserted by a copyist to explain why people waited by the pool in large numbers".
A copyist was someone who took a copy of the scripture and wrote out another copy. (A long long time ago)
2006-10-24 00:52:40 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
And people question the good old KJV
All would be clear if we insert the parenthesis, thus, " For [ it was said that ] an angel," then NIV would of not omitted it.
2006-10-24 00:50:54 · answer #6 · answered by Royal Racer Hell=Grave © 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because the NIV is a version of the Catholic Bible, not the King James. The Catholic Bible was changed and added to by "St" Origen. The King James is the only non-corrupted Bible.
2006-10-24 00:54:13 · answer #7 · answered by p2of9 4 · 0⤊ 3⤋
omg. ive never ever noticed that before. I guess it's because it's already sort of stated int the surrounding verses...sorry, thats the best reason I could come up with
2006-10-24 00:50:44 · answer #8 · answered by californiachk89 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The fountain of youth is a myth too
2006-10-24 00:50:04 · answer #9 · answered by Jibba Jabba 1 · 0⤊ 2⤋