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Definition: A special ability given through the holy spirit to some disciples in the early Christian congregation that enabled them to preach or otherwise glorify God in a language other than their own.
Does the Bible say that all who would have God’s spirit would “speak in tongues”?
1 Cor. 12:13, 30: “Truly by one spirit we were all baptized into one body . . . Not all have gifts of healings, do they? Not all speak in tongues, do they?” (Also 1 Corinthians 14:26)
1 Cor. 14:5: “Now I would like for all of you to speak in tongues, but I prefer that you prophesy. Indeed, he that prophesies is greater than he that speaks in tongues, unless, in fact, he translates, that the congregation may receive upbuilding.”
Does ecstatic speech in a language that a person never learned prove that he has holy spirit?
Can the ability to “speak in tongues” come from a source other than the true God?
1 John 4:1: “Beloved ones, do not believe every inspired expression [“every spirit,” KJ, RS], but test the inspired expressions to see whether they originate with God.” (See also Matthew 7:21-23; 2 Corinthians 11:14, 15.)
Among those ‘speaking in tongues’ today are Pentecostals and Baptists, also Roman Catholics, Episcopalians, Methodists, Lutherans, and Presbyterians. Jesus said that the holy spirit would ‘guide his disciples into all the truth.’ (John 16:13) Do the members of each of these religions believe that the others who also “speak in tongues” have been guided into “all the truth”? How could that be, since they are not all in agreement? What spirit is making it possible for them to “speak in tongues”?
A joint statement by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council admitted: “We are also aware that a similar phenomenon can occur under occult/demonic influence.” (Gospel and Spirit, April 1977, published by the Fountain Trust and the Church of England Evangelical Council, p. 12) The book Religious Movements in Contemporary America (edited by Irving I. Zaretsky and Mark P. Leone, quoting L. P. Gerlach) reports that in Haiti ‘speaking in tongues’ is characteristic of both Pentecostal and Voodoo religions.—(Princeton, N.J.; 1974), p. 693; see also 2 Thessalonians 2:9, 10.
Is the ‘speaking in tongues’ that is done today the same as that done by first-century Christians?
In the first century, the miraculous gifts of the spirit, including the ability to “speak in tongues,” verified that God’s favor had shifted from the Jewish system of worship to the newly established Christian congregation. (Heb. 2:2-4) Since that objective was accomplished in the first century, is it necessary to prove the same thing again and again in our day?
In the first century, the ability to “speak in tongues” gave impetus to the international work of witnessing that Jesus had commissioned his followers to do. (Acts 1:8; 2:1-11; Matt. 28:19) Is that how those who “speak in tongues” use that ability today?
In the first century, when Christians ‘spoke in tongues,’ what they said had meaning to people who knew those languages. (Acts 2:4, 8) Today, is it not true that ‘speaking in tongues’ usually involves an ecstatic outburst of unintelligible sounds?
In the first century, the Bible shows, congregations were to limit the ‘speaking in tongues’ to two or three persons who might do that at any given meeting; they were to do it “each in turn,” and if there was no interpreter present they were to keep silent. (1 Cor. 14:27, 28, RS) Is that what is being done today?
See also pages 381, 382, under the heading “Spirit.”
Might the holy spirit be directing charismatics into practices that reach beyond what is found in the Scriptures?
2 Tim. 3:16, 17: “All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.” (If someone claims to have an inspired message that conflicts with revelations made by God’s spirit through Jesus and his apostles, could it possibly be from the same source?)
Gal. 1:8: “Even if we or an angel out of heaven were to declare to you as good news something beyond [“at variance with,” NE] what we declared to you as good news, let him be accursed.”
Does the way of life of members of organizations that look with favor on ‘speaking in tongues’ give evidence that they have God’s spirit?
As a group do they outstandingly manifest such fruits of the spirit as mildness and self-control? Are these qualities readily evident to persons who attend their meetings for worship?—Gal. 5:22, 23.
Are they truly “no part of the world”? Because of this do they give full devotion to the Kingdom of God or are they involved in the world’s political affairs? Have they remained clean of bloodguilt during wartime? As a group do they have a fine reputation because of avoiding the world’s immoral conduct?—John 17:16; Isa. 2:4; 1 Thess. 4:3-8.
Are true Christians today identified by the ability to “speak in tongues”?
John 13:35: “By this all will know that you are my disciples, if you have love among yourselves.”
1 Cor. 13:1, 8: “If I speak in the tongues of men and of angels but do not have love, I have become a sounding piece of brass or a clashing cymbal. Love never fails. But whether there are gifts of prophesying, they will be done away with; whether there are tongues, they will cease.”
Jesus said that holy spirit would come upon his followers and that they would be witnesses of him to the most distant part of the earth. (Acts 1:8) He instructed them to “make disciples of people of all the nations.” (Matt. 28:19) He also foretold that ‘this good news of the kingdom would be preached in all the inhabited earth for a witness to all nations.’ (Matt. 24:14) Who today, both as a group and individually, are doing this work? In harmony with what Jesus said, should we not look for this as an evidence that a group has holy spirit?
Is ‘speaking in tongues’ to continue until that which is “perfect” comes?
At 1 Corinthians 13:8 reference is made to several miraculous gifts—prophecy, tongues, and knowledge. Verse 9 again refers to two of these gifts—knowledge and prophecy—saying: “For we know in part, and we prophesy in part.” (KJ) Or, as RS reads: “For our knowledge is imperfect and our prophecy is imperfect.” Then verse 10 states: “But when that which is perfect is come, then that which is in part shall be done away.” (KJ) The word “perfect” is translated from the Greek te´lei·on, which conveys the thought of being full grown, complete, or perfect. Ro, By, and NW here render it “complete.” Notice that it is not the gift of tongues that is said to be “imperfect,” “in part,” or partial. That is said of “prophecy” and “knowledge.” In other words, even with those miraculous gifts, the early Christians had only an imperfect or partial understanding of God’s purpose. But when the prophecies would come to fulfillment, when God’s purpose would be accomplished, then “that which is perfect,” or complete, would come. So, this is obviously not discussing how long the ‘gift of tongues’ would continue.
However, the Bible does indicate how long the ‘gift of tongues’ would be a part of Christian experience. According to the record, this gift and the other gifts of the spirit were always conveyed to persons by the laying on of hands of the apostles of Jesus Christ or in their presence. (Acts 2:4, 14, 17; 10:44-46; 19:6; see also Acts 8:14-18.) Thus, after their death and when the individuals who in that way had received the gifts died, the miraculous gifts resulting from the operation of God’s spirit must have come to their end. Such a view agrees with the purpose of those gifts as stated at Hebrews 2:2-4.
Does not Mark 16:17, 18 (KJ) show that the ability to “speak with new tongues” would be a sign identifying believers?
It should be noted that these verses refer not only to ‘speaking with new tongues’ but also to handling serpents and drinking deadly poison. Are all who “speak in tongues” also encouraging these practices?
2006-10-22 13:26:33
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answer #1
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answered by Epitome_inc 4
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People think speaking in tongues is just babbling and hoping it is some Heavenly language.
The speaking in tongues in the Bible was in the early church in the Book of Acts. They spoke different languages they had never studied so that everyone around could understand them praising God in various languages. It was meant as a miraculous sign of Gods power to help usher in the church and illustrate the work of the Holy Spirit. Why people do it falsely today is beyond me. That stuff really dropped off past the 1st century!
2006-10-22 13:37:56
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answer #2
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answered by Anonymous
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In the first century, the apostles had been given the power (by the Holy Spirit) to speak languages they never learned fluently. The apostles also had the ability to impart this gift to others by laying their hands on them. The purpose of the tongues was so that men would believe the message of the apostles. The ability to speak in tongues was also given to Cornelius and his household (Gentiles) for the purpose of showing that God does not show partiality. Since the apostles have long been gone and the purposes for tongues were fulfilled in the first century, tongues are no longer necessary today.
1 Corinthians 13:8-10 Love never fails. But whether there are prophecies, they will fail; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will vanish away. For we know in part and we prophesy in part. But when that which is perfect has come, then that which is in part will be done away
2006-10-22 13:30:58
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answer #3
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answered by K 5
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I consider God nonetheless suggests men and women matters (prophesy) and I consider there are men and women who talk in tongues (languages) even as underneath the affect of the Holy Spirit. The concern I have along with your mom, from what you let us know, is that she brags approximately those matters. Pride is a sin. And she sounds prideful or probably she demands awareness, I do not know. If she is studying your diary and looking you in church (whilst she must be concentrating on worshiping God) then she could also be fallacious and manipulative. Speaking in tongues and prophesy/visions had been one of the crucial presents of the Spirit Jesus promised we might have. Unfortunately, those matters were misused by means of men and women till they've a poor connotation for such a lot men and women. But there are the ones with natural causes and hearts practically God who nonetheless have those presents!! Thank God for that....((Hugs))
2016-09-01 01:06:42
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answer #4
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answered by willsey 4
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Speaking in tongues is mentioned only twice in the New Testament. Early Christians saw it as a one-time happening. Little emphasis was placed on it by the early disciples or St. Paul. Today, it is emphasized by Protestant Pentecostals and Catholic Charismatics. They seem to think they have "arrived" when they have this experience and criticize other Christians if they haven't had the same experience. They give the impression that they have earned this experience rather than giving credit to God for an unearned blessing.
Although the NT shows this as an initial experience for new believers, today's recipients act as if they have arrrived at the pinnacle of Christian experience. Consequently, they often become stale Christians and cease to grow in their relationship with God.
In my opinion what passes today for 'speaking in tongues' is little more than mass hypnotism. It demonstrates the power of suggestion on the human psyche.
It is my understanding that we seek to grow in and with God. I'm very skeptical of people who seek an experience rather than seeking God.
2006-10-22 13:45:53
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answer #5
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answered by Buffy 5
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I have been taught that speaking in tongues is a gift of the holy spirit. You can't just "have" it, it is given to you and it isn't supposed to be gibberish, but actual languages. Why would God have us speak in gibberish if it means nothing to anyone around us? If people are preaching the word of God, than it should be something we can understand.
2006-10-22 13:32:39
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answer #6
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answered by Milly 2
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The reason you can't find anything in the Bible about it is because there isn't anything in the Bible. It is an area that Pentecostals (and other denominations since) have added to the Scriptures based on psychic experiences starting in 1906 with a woman named Anges Osmond. They follow it because it makes them "feel" good, not because it is scriptural. Tongues as happened in the Bible has ended. If anyone wants to dispute that all they have to do is go and speak to someone in who does not speak any English in their own language. Should be simple for the "Holy Spirit". But it just doesn't happen. I would urge you to stay away from it.
2006-10-22 13:39:32
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answer #7
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answered by oldguy63 7
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1 Corinthians 14:27
If anyone speaks in a tongue, two—or at the most three—should speak, one at a time, and someone must interpret.
1 Corinthians 14:2
For anyone who speaks in a tongue [ Or another language; also in verses 4, 13, 14, 19, 26 and 27] does not speak to men but to God. Indeed, no one understands him; he utters mysteries with his spirit. [ Or by the Spirit]
Acts 2:4
All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues [ Or languages; also in verse 11] as the Spirit enabled them.
2006-10-22 13:26:57
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Well, I am not too sure about speaking in tongues either, but here is a bit from Acts regarding it:
Acts 2:1-18
1 When the day of Pentecost came, they were all together in one place.
2 Suddenly a sound like the blowing of a violent wind came from heaven and filled the whole house where they were sitting.
3 They saw what seemed to be tongues of fire that separated and came to rest on each of them.
4 All of them were filled with the Holy Spirit and began to speak in other tongues as the Spirit enabled them.
5 Now there were staying in Jerusalem God-fearing Jews from every nation under heaven.
6 When they heard this sound, a crowd came together in bewilderment, because each one heard them speaking in his own language.
7 Utterly amazed, they asked: "Are not all these men who are speaking Galileans?
8 Then how is it that each of us hears them in his own native language?
9 Parthians, Medes and Elamites; residents of Mesopotamia, Judea and Cappadocia, Pontus and Asia,
10 Phrygia and Pamphylia, Egypt and the parts of Libya near Cyrene; visitors from Rome
11 (both Jews and converts to Judaism); Cretans and Arabs-we hear them declaring the wonders of God in our own tongues!"
12 Amazed and perplexed, they asked one another, "What does this mean?"
13 Some, however, made fun of them and said, "They have had too much wine."
14 Then Peter stood up with the Eleven, raised his voice and addressed the crowd: "Fellow Jews and all of you who live in Jerusalem, let me explain this to you; listen carefully to what I say.
15 These men are not drunk, as you suppose. It's only nine in the morning!
16 No, this is what was spoken by the prophet Joel:
17 " 'In the last days, God says, I will pour out my Spirit on all people. Your sons and daughters will prophesy, your young men will see visions, your old men will dream dreams.
18 Even on my servants, both men and women, I will pour out my Spirit in those days, and they will prophesy.
2006-10-22 13:25:37
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answer #9
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answered by Iamnotarobot (former believer) 6
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Genesis 10:20
These are the sons of Ham, after their families, after their tongues, in their countries, and in their nations.
1 Cor. 13:1
Though I speak with the tongues of men and of angels, and have not charity, I am become as sounding brass, or a tinkling cymbal.
1 Cor. 14:18
I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all:
1 Cor. 14:22-23
Wherefore tongues are for a sign, not to them that believe, but to them that believe not: but prophesying serveth not for them that believe not, but for them which believe. [23] If therefore the whole church be come together into one place, and all speak with tongues, and there come in those that are unlearned, or unbelievers, will they not say that ye are mad?
1 Cor. 14:39
Wherefore, brethren, covet to prophesy, and forbid not to speak with tongues.
One, there is a tongue that every believer should have - a heavenly language.
Another tongue in 1 Cor. 12:28 is used for a public church settings, with interpretation to follow.
The last tongue is an earthly language spoken but not learned by the giver. Mostly, it is an old dialect of a language that someone recognixes, with whom the message is translated and received.
2006-10-22 13:29:49
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answer #10
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answered by n9wff 6
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Sorry I have not found that ether in the Bible it only talkes
about other languages that is all speaking in tongues is that i Can find in the Bible but If you find some thing that is to talk in tongues that no languages at all is being spoke then let me know.
2006-10-22 13:36:30
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answer #11
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answered by Shawn C 1
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