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3 answers

I would guess false, but that's just a guess. I can't imagine the price elasticity for shoes is high enough to cause a noticeable change for the 4-8% price change that sales tax would typically make, since shoes are likely more often bought because someone needs shoes than bought as a luxury..

2006-10-21 19:23:17 · answer #1 · answered by Judy 7 · 0 0

Depends on how high a tax. Many sales taxes on clothing only apply to "luxury" clothes; i.e., those over a certain price. This can result in a glut of shoes right at the price break (i.e., if the tax kicks in at £100, then there's a lot of shoes on sale for £99.99).

2006-10-22 13:54:25 · answer #2 · answered by lizzit 3 · 0 0

If you look at the total price people will pay for shoes (tax inclusive), there is no shift in the demand curve. If you look at the pre-tax price people will pay, then these is a shift because the buyer needs to also pay the tax.

2006-10-23 06:51:03 · answer #3 · answered by NotEasilyFooled 5 · 0 0

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