English Deutsch Français Italiano Español Português 繁體中文 Bahasa Indonesia Tiếng Việt ภาษาไทย
All categories

Leviticus 25:45 in the King James Version

www.biblegateway.com

I'm just asking. I'm not promoting the Bible or attacking it. I'm just asking the question.

2006-10-21 07:52:20 · 16 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

16 answers

the bible also says to obey the laws of the land.
if you want to own child slaves then you need to move to where it is legal.

2006-10-21 07:55:02 · answer #1 · answered by Hannah's Grandpa 7 · 6 0

Well, the Hebrew and Greek represent the REAL word of God... Unfortunately, the kjv provides a rather poor representation of those original language documents, so the simple answer is "No." One major problem is all the verses included in the kjv that are NOT ORIGINAL. There are dozens of passages that are not found in the best manuscripts, one of which (from 1John 5 called the "Johannine Comma" by theologians) was COMPLETELY UNKNOWN until the FOURTEENTH CENTURY. Its inclusion of spurious passages against overwhelming evidence makes the kjv a poor choice for any serious student. The New Testament was written in VERY SIMPLE LANGUAGE. My somewhat joking description of the language of John's Gospel as being "fourth grade Greek" is really not that far off. When you consider that most people in that era understood Koine Greek, at least on a minimal level, but only a small percentage had it as their first language. For most of the empire, there was some other language which was an individual's primary language. For this reason, the bulk of the New Testament is composed in very simple language. In order for any translation to accurately reflect the original, it should, as much as possible, also reflect the simplistic style of the original. Studies have indicated that many high school graduates have significant difficulty ascertaining the correct meaning of many phrases in the King James Bible. As a result, I would argue that it reflects the opposite of the original simplicity, requiring significant study of the language itself before a person can understand the meaning of the scriptures. With some modern translations' "reading level" being measured at less than THIRD GRADE while maintaining a high degree of accuracy to the original, the continued use of a version measuring TWELFTH (or higher) makes no sense. As for preaching or teaching, there might be some places where the kjv only hang-up is pretty strong, but I haven't used anything but Greek to teach or preach in quite a few years, and I have NEVER had anyone argue that it was somehow inauthentic. Several times I have had people ask what version I was reading. The look on their faces when I showed them the answer has usually been priceless ;-)

2016-05-22 08:01:14 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

It is inaccurate to say the KJV is without mistakes.

Today, no one reads the King James Version in its original form.
Explaining why, the book The Bible in Its Ancient and English Versions says:
“Almost every edition, from the very beginning, introduced corrections and unauthorized changes and additions, often adding new errors in the process. The edition of 1613 shows over three hundred differences from 1611.
It was in the eighteenth century, however, that the main changes were made."
So many changes have been made, the Committee on Versions of the American Bible Society found 24,000 variations in six different editions of the King James Version!

2006-10-21 08:04:41 · answer #3 · answered by Uncle Thesis 7 · 0 1

You are on a roll today, Jim. In my opinion, society, knowledge and compassion have advanced to the point that what was once allowed is now forbidden, but most of what was forbidden at that time is still forbidden. Well, pork is safer than it used to be and thanks to indoor plumbing, menstruating women are not as scary as they used to be, but you get the idea.
Anyway, the laws of most developed nations today would forbid you to own slaves and especially child slaves. I should probably say something about what things could be considered Laws of God that can't be superseded by human law and in which areas the law of the land can take precedent, but I'm not sure how to give you an incontrovertible statement about that.
Anyone could use another cup of coffee about now.

2006-10-21 08:09:19 · answer #4 · answered by anyone 5 · 0 1

You're God given right?? NO, you do not have the RIGHT. Does God speak against slavery? NO. Why, because the Biblical version of slavery is much more like the responsibility associated with caring for children, not the ownership of property. Plus, according to the Bible you'd only "own" them for six years, unless they choose to remain permanently.

2006-10-21 08:05:50 · answer #5 · answered by berg 2 · 0 0

You are clearly looking for an arguement. Since you are not a Chrsitian, there is no way anyone can give you the answer you are looking for with your question, that will satisfy what you think you already know, but are most likely wrong about.

All I can tell you is that the old testiment and all of its contents led up to the birth, life, and crucifixion of Jesus, and His ressurection. you want a salve, go hire a maid or a buttler.

2006-10-21 08:05:38 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

no obviusly the way things were when that was written is not what we expect today.
if you look at the time period they had excapped from salvery in egypt but here is your verse it is not applicable now

45 You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property. 46 You can will them to your children as inherited property and can make them slaves for life, but you must not rule over your fellow Israelites ruthlessly.

they were told to treat slaves well

2006-10-21 07:56:51 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Read Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary on Leviticus 25:39-55:

A native Israelite, if sold for debt, or for a crime, was to serve but six years, and to go out the seventh. If he sold himself, through poverty, both his work and his usage must be such as were fitting for a son of Abraham. Masters are required to give to their servants that which is just and equal, Colossians 4:1. At the year of jubilee the servant should go out free, he and his children, and should return to his own family. This typified redemption from the service of sin and Satan, by the grace of God in Christ, whose truth makes us free, John 8:32. We cannot ransom our fellow-sinners, but we may point out Christ to them; while by his grace our lives may adorn his gospel, express our love, show our gratitude, and glorify his holy name.


Perhaps this might help; sometimes you can't just look at one verse out of context. God bless!

2006-10-21 08:02:17 · answer #8 · answered by eefen 4 · 1 0

Whoever said the KJV bible is without mistakes?

Any one who can be bothered reading leviticus just to find (many) verses (out of context) about a far different time, just has to be christian bashing.

2006-10-21 08:01:41 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yes, indeed!! According to the Good Book you could buy and sell people, thrash them to within an inch of their lives if you like. There ARE laws about it, but don't worry they are fairly lenient.
Ahhh... the good old days eh? Unless your a slave that is.

2006-10-21 08:00:12 · answer #10 · answered by eantaelor 4 · 0 0

fedest.com, questions and answers