I would like to turn your question around a little. Rather than look at whether or not it is a sin to have fornicate, I think we have to talk about what it means to have sexual intercourse with another person. I believe that its meaning is profound and beautiful. Having intercourse is about so much more than they physical aspect. There is an emotional, psychological and spiritual aspect as well. When a couple engages in sexual intercourse they are giving the complete gift of oneself to each other. They are saying that you are the person who completes me who makes me whole, not just for this moment, this week, or this month, but for the rest of my life. They love between these two people is so powerful that it has the potential for creating new life. Anything less than a lifelong committed loving relationship cheapens this beautiful act.
2006-10-21 05:05:22
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answer #1
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answered by anyonexxxxxx9999 4
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Hebrew: zanah / Greek: porneia
Fornication is voluntary sexual intercourse between a man and woman who are not married to each other. Adultery is one type of fornication.
In every form, fornication was sternly condemned by the Mosaic law among God's people, the Israelites (Lev. 21:9; 19:29; Deut. 22:20-11, 23-29; 23:18; Ex. 22:16). (See ADULTERY.)
Fornication is also mentioned many times in the New Testament (Matt. 5:32; 19:9; John 8:41; Acts 15:20, 29; 21:25; Rom. 1:29; 1 Cor 5:1, 6:13, 18, 7:2; 10:8; 2 Cor 12:21; Gal 5:19; Eph 5:3; Col 3:5; 1 Thess. 4:3; Jude 1:7; Rev. 2:14, 20-21; 9:21; 14:8; 17:2,4).
"The Greek word for 'fornication' (porneia) could include any sexual sin committed after the betrothal contract. ...In Biblical usage, 'fornication' can mean any sexual congress outside monogamous marriage. It thus includes not only premarital sex, but also adultery, homosexual acts, incest, remarriage after un-Biblical divorce, and sexual acts with animals, all of which are explicitly forbidden in the law as given through Moses (Leviticus 20:10-21). Christ expanded the prohibition against adultery to include even sexual lusting (Matthew 5:28)." (Dr. Henry M. Morris)
The word "fornication" is sometimes used in a symbolic sense in the Bible, for example, meaning a forsaking of God or a following after idols (Isa. 1:2; Jer. 2:20; Ezek. 16; Hos. 1:2; 2:1-5; Jer. 3:8-9).
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I have no passionate views on the subject, since I'm not a Christian. The above I got @ The Bible Encyclopedia. I was a virgin bride and I do not recommend it. It took years to get over thinking that sex was sinful. It is not. As long as you respect yourself, respect your body and respect the other person. Sex is wonderful.
2006-10-21 04:48:00
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answer #2
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answered by AuroraDawn 7
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Fornication is taken under consideration sin no matter if the fellow is a hermaphrodite. Marrying a hermaphrodite would not be a sin because study tutor that despite the undeniable fact that the fellow has both sexes, a call actually takes position and the fellow turns into guy or female in concepts and heart.
2016-10-16 05:50:43
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answer #3
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answered by ? 3
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Premise 1: Sin is breaking God' law.
Premise 2: God's law says that sex outside of marriage is a sin.
Conclusion : Therefore, fornication is sin.
Sorry, the Bible warns against much words. And you can easily find those quotes in the Bible.
2006-10-21 04:51:55
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answer #4
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answered by flandargo 5
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the idea is that man should be in tune with God.
if i not being married go and have sex with a women
i tie my spirit with hers and i become distracted from
following God to the best ability i could have.
in marriage the sexual realtionship is one that gives God
glory because of its affection between the two and the life of the
couple is enriched in that they are both tied into God as they carry
their lives before God. some would disagree but that is what i get from reading the bible on that subject.
2006-10-21 05:08:03
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Sex outside of marriage defeats the purpose of courtship between future spouses. As long as a man and women communicate their dreams and ideas to each other they are building a relationship. When sex is brought into the relationship, the focus changes from building a foundation to haveing a sexual relationship. The foundation is never completed, the relationship is cheapened and will fall apart.
2006-10-21 04:47:26
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answer #6
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answered by Anonymous
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Sex outside of marriage is lust.
1 John, chapter 2 verse 16
For all that is in the world, the lust of the flesh, and the lust of the eyes, and the pride of life, is not of the Father, but is of the world.
Galatians, chapter 5 verse 16
This I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and ye shall not fulfill the lust of the flesh.
2006-10-21 04:57:32
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answer #7
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answered by Born Again Christian 5
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To fornicate is to have sex before marriage.
God wants a man and a woman to unite for life. Sex is to be an intimate bond to be enjoyed between those two.
2006-10-21 04:56:47
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answer #8
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answered by tim 6
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I Cor 6:9 badly mistranslate "porneia" as fornication. Corinth was a wide-open port city. People there could get sex any way they wanted it. Where our English translations read 'fornication', Paul's original Greek word was 'porneia' which means to sell and refers to slaves bought and sold for cultic prostitution. What was happening in the Temples of Corinth was farmers were visiting the temple priestesses who represented the fertility Gods. By having sex with these prostitutes they believed their fields would be more furtile. It didn't even have to do with going to prostitutes, but pagan cultic worship.
In Rome, the Latin prostitutes would hang out in small alley's and behind small L shaped walls. In Latin the shape is called FORNIX, hence the place association with acts of prostitution gave "fornicatio" Where Paul was condemning sex goddess, cultic, prostitution or trafficking in slaves for that purpose, the Latin fathers substituted 'fornicatio', which led readers to believe that Paul was condemning all forms of premarital sexual intercourse."
Some modern English Bible versions translate "porneia" as "sexual immorality", a term which is supposed to clarify the somewhat obscure and dated "fornication", but is really a catch-all term that allows interpreters, both professional and lay, to apply this passage to any sexual behavior at all, far beyond the specific practices to which Paul refers.
From "Halley's Bible Handbook" 1 Cor. 6: 9-20; "Venus was the principal Deity of Corinth. Her temple was one of the most magnificent buildings in the city. In it a thousand Priestesses, Public Prostitutes, were kept, at public expense, there always ready for Immoral Indulgence, as worship to their Goddess." The Christians continued to go to the temple for sexual indulgences with the priestesses of Venus. This was all Paul was talking about and he says nothing about loving sexual pleasure-sharing with non-goddesses'!
It does violation to the Biblical text to assume I Cor.6:9 includes pre-marital sex, especially since that is not the context of the discussion, either of that chapter or of the surrounding chapters. The context of I Cor.6 is the problems with the Temple of Aphrodite. Sex with those prostitutes was idolatrous. The argument that Paul condemns singles' sex here or anywhere else in scripture is faulty interpretation. Such a position is illogical because your assumptions are based on emotional constructs rather than on history and on hard evidence.
2006-10-21 04:54:59
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answer #9
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answered by K 5
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It is not! Sex is natural, and tyrants try to achieve totalitarian control over us by making strict regulations about such things. I do not neeed some priest's approval before I make love to a consenting lady or some silly ceremony for which said priest makes money. I rebel against tyrants in this area of life and all others.
2006-10-21 04:55:11
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answer #10
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answered by miyuki & kyojin 7
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