In chapter 9 of the book of Isaiah it states that a child will be born and in verse 6-7 it states that this child will be called,"...And he will be called Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace....", and as far as I know the chapter 9:1-7 is refering to the Massiah. Why would the Messiah be called "mighty God and Wonderful counselor, if he is not of God or is God or at least a part of God?
2006-10-20 07:47:53 · 5 answers · asked by TYRONE S 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The original hebrew text is written without vowels or punctuation, therefore, it needs an expert in the nuances of biblical hebrew to understand it correctly.
The fact is that the translation of these verses as they appear in Christian bibles is somewhat poor and the verses are not parsed correctly.
Actually, these verses are referring to the child prophesied in Isaiah 7...which contrary to popular belief is not a reference to the messiah or to a virgin birth.
The correct parsing of the verse is that the 'Wonderful Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father' will call him (the child) Prince of Peace.
When read correctly, it is obvious that the verse, although the fulfillment of prophesy, is not about the Messiah but a child born in the times of Isaiah...some 600-700 years BEFORE Jesus was born.
2006-10-20 08:00:10 · answer #1 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
I keep a Jewish bible by my desk just for questions like these. The Bible I have first of all, translates this in past tense, it sense a child HAS been given to us, IE before Jesus. Second, it says, his name shall be, which is different from, he shall be called.
this is the king james bible version whici just loked up " For unto us a child IS BORN, unto us a son is GIVEN: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counseller, The mighty God, The everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace." even this is in the past tense!
2006-10-22 19:59:48 · answer #2 · answered by abcdefghijk 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There was a king named "Yehu" (not sure the correct English spelling) which is hebrew for "He is G-d".
Does that therefore mean that that king was considered to be a god? No. It was a reference to G-d Himself.
Similarly, here. Calling a person that elongated name does not mean that he was G-d.
Also, your claim that it was referring to the Messiah is suspect since there is no evidence to that, only a handwaving argument.
Jewish sources identify it as referring to Hezekiah.
2006-10-22 00:28:58 · answer #3 · answered by BMCR 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Firstly, you are reading the Bible in English, which means you cannot glean the true meaning from it anyway...
Secondly, every one of the Biblical or rabbinic passages that missionaries bring as proof that Jesus is the Messiah, have been either mistranslated, misquoted, taken out of context, or fabricated.
When carefully analyzed, Jewish scriptures do not point to Jesus as the Messiah and in fact disqualify him.
2006-10-20 16:06:04 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
He is called "G-d is 'Everlasting father...'" According to you: Why did he never judge? Why was he called father?
2006-10-20 15:39:15 · answer #5 · answered by ysk 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋