Matthew 1:24
24When Joseph woke up, he did what the angel of the Lord had commanded him and took Mary home as his wife. 25But he had no union with her until she gave birth to a son. And he gave him the name Jesus
2006-10-20 05:49:10 · 32 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
O.K. maybe it was a spaniard, they're hot-blooded too. Hay-soos
2006-10-20 05:52:45 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
You don't understand this passage. They were not married when Mary became pregnant with Jesus, but by the time she delivered they WERE married. If they weren't married why did it say in Luke 2 that Joseph took his wife Mary to the City of David for the tax counting prior to Jesus's birth?
2006-10-20 05:53:15 · answer #2 · answered by Mr. Curious 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
In Jewish tradition, a man did not take his future bride home until the marriage contract was sealed with a ceremony. Since Joseph "took Mary home as his wife," a Jewish audience would understand that the ceremony had occured at some point after Joseph awoke from the dream.
Since Jesus was born during the marriage, He was considered legitimate.
Peace.
2006-10-20 05:52:38 · answer #3 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The union you cite is intercourse. They were married:
Now the birth of Jesus Christ took place in this way. When his mother Mary had been betrothed to Joseph, before they came together she was found to be with child of the Holy Spirit; and her husband Joseph, being a just man and unwilling to put her to shame, resolved to divorce her quietly. But as he considered this, behold, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream, saying, "Joseph, son of David, do not fear to take Mary your wife, for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Spirit; she will bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.
"All this took place to fulfil what the Lord had spoken by the prophet: "Behold, a virgin shall conceive and bear a son, and his name shall be called Emmanuel" (which means, God with us). When Joseph woke from sleep, he did as the angel of the Lord commanded him; he took his wife, but knew her not until she had borne a son; and he called his name Jesus. " (Matt 1:18-25, RSV)
These verses show that Joseph did indeed take Mary to be his wife (married her) before Jesus was born, according to what the angel told him to do. All of this was according to God’s great plan and in no way did it reflect any wrong doing in their relationship.
2006-10-20 05:53:45 · answer #4 · answered by Aspurtaime Dog Sneeze 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Joseph took Mary as his wife before Jesus was born
2006-10-20 05:53:08 · answer #5 · answered by Dylanne 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
What part of that verse do you not understand. Joseph took Mary home as his wife. Just because he didn't sleep with her till Jesus was born does not mean they were not married. God commanded him she must stay a virgin because it was God's child implanted ( if you will ) into Mary's womb. Jesus is not even part Mary. He is truly God but because he was born he was also human. I realize this is hard to understand but that is where faith comes into play.
2006-10-20 06:24:09 · answer #6 · answered by carlamcgrath 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Back at this time, the betrothal was considered about the same a marriage, tho a year or more could separate the ceremonies. Too often, Roman soldiers would rape the betroth woman, to make a mockery of her. This is what alot of people think happened to Mary, and she became pregnant.
Years later, and as it is today (because of this situation), it became the custom to have the betrothal ceremony and the wedding ceremony at the same time.
2006-10-20 06:00:18 · answer #7 · answered by Shossi 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
But they were married...and if Joseph wasn't the father, that makes Jesus worse than a bastard.
2006-10-20 06:33:42 · answer #8 · answered by mzJakes 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus was immaculately conceived, so since he comes directly from God. so he does not really qualify to be called a bastard. Mary was a virgin, not all women who have children under this category are virgins.
2006-10-20 05:53:35 · answer #9 · answered by Tala 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He married her "took Mary home as his wife," but they didn't have a physical relationship "had no union" until after the birth.
2006-10-20 05:51:33 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
If Joseph was not the father then a spontaneous pregnancy would not qualify as a bastardization process.
2006-10-20 05:51:24 · answer #11 · answered by MЯ BAIT™ 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋