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14 answers

Whether or not his car gets fixed is the least of his problems. Perhaps you and he should have thought about this BEFORE he drove the car on public roads. I mean after all, it IS only the law.

2006-10-19 15:00:39 · answer #1 · answered by vwhobo 4 · 0 0

Well, that's up to him. Whether or not he has insurance is irrelevant to the fault of the accident. If the other car has insurance, they will pay the lesser of cost to repair, or actual cash value of the car. They'll write him a check. Then he can either repair, or replace the car.

If, however, they don't have insurance, he'll have to sue them personally for damages. Even if he wins, there's no guarantee he'll be able to collect the $$.

Comments on other answers: States do NOT hold the person without insurance "at fault" for an accident regardless of facts. No fault insurance does NOT apply to physical damage - only medical/bodily injury. And most importantly, "irregardless" is not a word.

2006-10-20 09:29:15 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous 7 · 0 0

If you live in a "No Fault" state, each person pays for his own damage and in that situation he will probably have to pay for his own repairs.

If you are NOT in a 'No Fault" state, then the person who does the "rear ending" is always at fault. In that case the repair bill should be paid by the person that rear ended him. Good luck. Pops

2006-10-19 22:02:53 · answer #3 · answered by Pops 6 · 0 0

Possibly. If you reside in a 'no pay, no play' state you will NOT recieve any settlement. If the accident is your son's fault, (and NO, not every rear end collision is the other car's fault) you may have to pay for repairs to the other car.

2006-10-19 21:57:17 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

If his (or you) has the money to fix it. this is why people should have insurance. If you can afford to drive a car then you should be able to afford insurance. maybe he should look into the bus route until he can afford insurance. I'm not trying to be mean but why should someone that has insurance have to pay for someone that does not?

2006-10-19 22:02:53 · answer #5 · answered by blu_drgn25 4 · 0 0

Good possibility it won't if the other driver pushes the issue! He had no business on the road and was breaking the law in doing so! The other driver wouldn't have had the accident if he wasn't on the road! That's like a burglar breaking into your home and getting bitten by the family mut! Would you think he's entitled to compensation for his injuries? He'd be luckey he didn't pick my house because I would have shot him after the dog bit him!

2006-10-19 21:56:36 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Probably not, most states hold the person without insurance and licensing at fault.

2006-10-19 23:39:29 · answer #7 · answered by sfcjcl 5 · 0 0

Depends if your state has a no fault insurance

2006-10-19 22:00:26 · answer #8 · answered by Granny 1 7 · 0 0

if you do not have car insurance and get into an accident you have to pay for the repairs yourself irregardless of whose fault it is

2006-10-19 22:01:55 · answer #9 · answered by ♪ ♫ ☮ NYbron ☮ ♪ ♫ 6 · 0 0

If he was in Ohio, he would be in jail. and face suspension for 3 yrs. basic insurance is cheap! liability only is the cheapest way to go. call the General!on tv.

2006-10-19 21:56:46 · answer #10 · answered by richard c 4 · 1 1

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