Well as scripture dictated for a sacrifice it had to be a of the first flock or first harvest that was unblemished and pure. Christ came as God's first or as it is put "..only begotten." Though Christ was bruised physically he was spotless before the "world" or sin so to answer your question from a scripture point of view...Yes, he met the requirements. You must remember his atonement was a spiritual as well as physical experience. We are saved because he was resurrected. We may become exalted through his atonement for our sin.
2006-10-19 12:24:47
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answer #1
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answered by fiestytxchic 2
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I suppose that would depend on how one understands the requirements outlined in the Hebrew scriptures. Are we speaking of atonement for the sins of man?
If one borrows $5,000 from me, that is precisely what one owes me - nothing more and nothing less.
Adam was a perfect human being. In order to buy back what he lost, we needed another perfect human being. When Jesus was sacrificed, he was a perfect human being. No more and no less.
Animals sacrificed under the law covenant in the Hebrew scriptures could not meet God's requirements; certainly they could not meet his justice because animals are inferior to man. That is why the sacrifices had to be made from year to year to year.
Not so with Jesus. Think of scales of justice. Put Adam in one bowl. But Jesus in the other. The scales are perfectly balanced.
Hannah
2006-10-19 19:26:04
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answer #2
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answered by Hannah J Paul 7
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Yes he did. The blood atonement sacrifice required a lamb without spot or blimish. Jesus was that lamb. He was the suitable sacrifice. Had he not met the requirements that God laid out, then He would be unable to atone for our sins.
Jesus is the Lamb of God. He also fulfilled the entire Old Testament Laws including the Ten Commandments.
2006-10-19 19:25:50
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answer #3
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answered by bro_ken128 3
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More importantly, Jesus met the requirements of the foretold Messiah who would be the blood atonement. If you read the Old Testament which outlines all the criteria that the Messiah would have to meet, Jesus met them all and it would be pretty hard for someone to meet all of them like Jesus did.
2006-10-19 19:24:55
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answer #4
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answered by SusieDarling 2
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I believe the Jewish people point out a few things in which Jesus failed to fulfill. This, if true, can easily be overlooked by looking at His whole life and doings.
Walked on water, cured people, raised the dead, defeated death by rising on the third day, etc. If this person, Jesus, said He was God, after performing the miracles He did, I got some news....He IS because He did say He was God. He told the Pharisees just before being brought before Pilate.
2006-10-19 19:25:37
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answer #5
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answered by Tom C 3
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Do you know why Jesus was murdered? If you know his miracles then you know that the first one was converting water to wine, on this age it probably be water to gasoline, but the owner of a vineyard was looking and he was probably in the guest list, and thought oh oh there goes my business. And another miracle of resuscitating Lazaro's, the guy from the funeral parlor thought oh oh there goes my business. And when he cured the deaf the blind and the paralytic, do you imagine the doctors of that time thinking there goes our business. Now a days when a person has this powers is persecuted by others . Why not?.
2006-10-19 19:46:22
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answer #6
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answered by antonioavilakiss 3
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He met NONE of the requirements in the Torah.
If you are guessing that the Jesus thing was a false alarm -- good guess.
2006-10-19 19:21:41
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answer #7
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answered by Jay 6
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yes
2006-10-19 19:19:50
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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Seriously .... why do you ask? Whether he did or did not, what can possibly come of that information today!!?
2006-10-19 19:23:05
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answer #9
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answered by MyPreshus 7
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it met the requirements of god.
2006-10-19 19:20:25
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answer #10
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answered by Lfeata 5
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