I have seen a lot of questions to Christians on here about God killing people in the OT. He wiped out entire cities, every firstborn in Egypt, Hell he wiped out all life on the planet, except for Noah, his family, and a bunch of animals.
When people ask these questions, the typical Christian answer is: "That was the OT. Those are the old laws and they no longer apply since Jesus came back and saved us from ourselves"
Is this true? Do the laws in the OT no longer apply? Is that why we cant stone hookers? Is that why God has stopped killing people over the past 2000 years? Seriously, I want to know.
2006-10-19 09:06:30 · 12 answers · asked by baptsm_by_fire 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Thank you John B. Thats the answer I was looking for.
2006-10-19 09:11:26 · update #1
Aviator, I have read the Bible. It says, God destroyed two major cities, killinbg everyone in them except Lot and his family. God brought the plagues to the egyptians. God killed every fisrst born male.
He flooded the earth, just to kill offf the people he didnt like. Dont give me this crap about he permits them to die. He killed them. Your Biblke says so. In black and wehite. You cannot deny that. He is a murderer.
2006-10-19 09:24:11 · update #2
Steve T: Kind of a " I brought you into this world, I can take you out"
2006-10-19 09:34:54 · update #3
No they do not because Christ Gave us a new law and that null and voids the OT.
2006-10-19 09:10:33 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
As a pagan, I understand the pagan thought that the God of the OT and the God of the NT is two different Gods because one is a vengeful unmerciful God while the other is a loving caring forgiving and patient God.
As a former Christian, I also understand the Christian line of thought. The OT was done away with and Christ nailed the law which is the OT to his cross taking it out of the way. forget the book chapter and verse, but if you want email me and I will look it up for you, but here is a verse that says Christ is mediator of a better covenant. Hebrews 8:6,7. Read verse 7 its says if the first had been faultless no place would have been sought for the second.
What amazes me is how the Christians do not know that God did in fact command killing of innocent people in the OT. Even as a Christian I knew and understood this, but I used the excuse that God is God and can do whatever he wants. He is God.
2006-10-19 09:29:47 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus did not come to abolish the law, but to fulfill it. That is why you hear "that was the OT' as a typical Christian answer. We do not have to follow the law any longer and praise God for that!
Rom 6:14 For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
Jhn 1:17 For the law was given by Moses, [but] grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
Rom 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law
2006-10-19 09:19:56 · answer #3 · answered by Roding around 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
not entirely - god saids not to kill so because that was said long ago that doesnt apply now? No
they're are certain laws that are no longer practiced like not eating meat that wasnt done before but now we can eat these delicious animals
AND to correct you- God doesnt kill people he permits them to die
permit and kill are two different things
2006-10-19 09:19:00 · answer #4 · answered by aviator 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No they do not. The New Testament ( not the first 4 gospels they are still under the old law) is under the new law of salvation through Christ.
2006-10-19 09:16:39 · answer #5 · answered by Buddy the Elf 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If god had to kill us, and Jesus had to save us from god, why did god not make better people? He should have made people that would not break his laws. He could see into the future to tell how many people would go to hell. He would either be imperfect, or like to see people burn...........or (this is the correct one) he does not exist, and this is a flaw in the ancient mythology.
2006-10-19 09:10:55 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
a million. you do no longer comprehend what God's regulations are for Christians, and how they fluctuate from the regulation of Moses that got here 'from' God. 2. you're taking this out of context, for Paul is going directly to tutor that no person obeys that regulation in spite of everything, hence no person will finally be declared righteous by way of or by way of that regulation in spite of everything. Christians are righteous by way of taking over Christ's righteousness, having their lives hid in Christ. no person would be justified by way of that regulation.
2016-11-23 19:46:15 · answer #7 · answered by kocaker 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
See, that's what I've been led to believe. I don't quite get where the anti-gay sentiment in the New Testament is.
2006-10-19 09:09:29 · answer #8 · answered by angk 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If he gave us free will then why are their rules at all?
He has no power over anything apparently...
2006-10-19 09:09:43 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
He kills people so what? if you were god you would do worse.
2006-10-19 09:33:41 · answer #10 · answered by Rabbit 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋