Why are the geneologies (excuse spelling!) in Matthew and Luke different to each other?

Question

If you provide a complicated answer please could you show me a reference to where I can prove it if possible, thanks.

In case some wonder what I'm talking about, Matthew and Luke are two of the gospels, accounts of Jesus life in the Bible. Each one wrote from his view and knowledge.

Answer 1

Question: "Why are Jesus' genealogies in Matthew and Luke so different?"



Answer: Jesus' genealogy is given in two places in Scripture, Matthew chapter 1 and Luke chapter 3, verses 23-38. Matthew traces the genealogy from Jesus to Abraham. Luke traces the genealogy from Jesus to Adam. However, there is good reason to believe that Matthew and Luke are in fact tracing entirely different genealogies. For example, Matthew gives Joseph's father as Jacob (Matthew 1:16), while Luke gives Joseph's father as Heli (Luke 3:23). Matthew traces the line through David's son Solomon (Matthew 1:6), while Luke traces the line through David's son Nathan (Luke 3:31). In fact, between David and Jesus, the only names the genealogies have in common are Shealtiel and Zerubbabel (Matthew 1:12; Luke 3:27). What is the explanation for these differences?



Some point to these differences as evidence of errors in the Bible. However, the Jews were meticulous record keepers, especially in regards to genealogies. It is inconceivable that Matthew and Luke could built two entirely contradictory genealogies of the same lineage. Again, from David through Jesus, the genealogies are completely different. Even the reference to Shealtiel and Zerubbabel likely refer to different individuals of the same names. Matthew gives Shealtiel's father as Jeconiah while Luke gives Shealtiel's father as Neri. It would be normal for a man named Shealtiel to name his son Zerubbabel in light of the famous individuals of those names (see the books of Ezra and Nehemiah).



Another explanation is that Matthew is tracing the primary lineage while Luke is taking into account the occurrences of "levirite marriage." If a man died without having any sons, it was tradition for the man's brother to marry his wife and have a son who would carry on the man's name. While possible, this view is unlikely as every generation from David to Jesus would have had a "levirite marriage" in order to account for the differences in every generation. This is highly unlikely.



With these concepts in view, most conservative Bible scholars assume Luke is recording Mary’s genealogy and Matthew is recording Joseph’s. Matthew is following the line of Joseph (Jesus’ legal father), through David’s son Solomon, while Luke is following the line of Mary (Jesus’ blood relative), though David’s son Nathan. There was no Greek word for "son-in-law," and Joseph would have been considered a son of Heli through marrying Heli's daughter Mary. Through either line, Jesus is a descendant of David and therefore eligible to be the Messiah. Tracing a genealogy through the mother’s side is unusual, but so was the virgin birth. Luke’s explanation is that Jesus was the son of Joseph “so it was thought” (Luke 3:23).

Answer 2

Christians have an excuse for everything. The truth is that the gospels were written between 40 and 60 years after jesus died so they didn't even know him . Fiction in my eyes

Answer 3

luke is Mary's Geneology
Matthew is Josephs's

Luke talks much more about women since he writing to romans, While Matthew wrote to Jews, who were male oriented.

both were descended from David, that is where they split.

Answer 4

One traces Joseph and the other Mary. They both descended from the line of David.

Read them side by side and you will see where they split.

Answer 5

As-solaamu-alaikum, different sources

Answer 6

not quite sure but have a look here it may help explain better

Answer 7

Because their parents' genes too were different.