Christians why does the person 'jewsihgirl' say there is no trinity? The God of Moses was not a trinity?

Question

Every jew says that there is no trinity. Their Prophets never mentioned such a thing. Why dont you research the history of the church, and there you will see that it was completely made up.

Answer 1

The Jews that lived before the Christian era did not believe in the trinity because that concept was foreign to their religious beliefs. Although their captors, the Egyptians, and later, the Babylonians had multiple triune gods, the Jews believed in one true God, Jehovah. And he was not a trinity.

If the trinity is true, why don't the Hebrew Scriptures say in bold terms that the God of the Jews was made up of three co-equal, co-eternal persons? Why didn't David or Ezekiel or Jeremiah mention a trinity? The trinity is a pagan doctrine that many people THINK came from the Bible.

Answer 2

No, Jews do not have a concept of the divine trinity. It was a special problem for Christians because they need to explain the relationship of Jesus to God. Was he simply human? A deified human? Some sort of angelic being? God impersonating a human? People fought riots over this. The ultimate decision of the Christian church was that Jesus was both God and human, one person with two natures. This immediately brought up the question of how God could be omniscient, omnipotent and ubiquitous while also living in a limited human body. The solution, inferred from scripture, was the Trinity, the notion that while God is one, God also has three aspects or "persons". Fighting immediately broke out over what that meant but the general idea has been accepted as orthodox since the Fourth Century CE.

Christians do not consider this idea as an invention but as developing a new understanding of God's nature. It has some logical problems and Christians themselves refer to it as a "mystery", meaning its ultimate explanation can only be understood by God. Non-Christian monotheists are certain to disagree.

Answer 3

he's a prophet of God. It ability as a god. Pharaoh does no longer comprehend the authentic God, so God confirmed his ability by way of Moses. on the time, in accordance to the Egyptian ideals, the failings that Moses became doing made him look as a god of their eyes. Aaron recognized as his prophet to the Egyptians because of the fact Aaron did many of the conversing on behalf of Moses. Bible scholars have self belief that Moses had some style of the conversing incapacity, like possibly stuttering. a lot of human beings of our day and age do no longer comprehend this because of the fact Charelton Heston became one in all those super orator interior the ten Commandments.

Answer 4

Jews do not believe that Jesus was the Messiah.

Answer 5

Actually, many Jewish rabbis have come to the conclusion that the books of Moses imply the concept of the trinity (see the article at the first link below), so your implication that the early prophets, such as Moses (pbuh), did not teach the concept of the trinity is incorrect.

With all due respect, if Muhammad was a prophet, then how come he and he alone was NOT Jewish, as all of the other prophets where? And why did Muhammad give prophecies which even Muslims admit were FALSE? (See the second link, below). Can God lie, or make a mistake? Think about it.

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The Testimony of the Peculiar Hebrew Plural-Singular Grammatical Construction

...These singular-plural constructions have proven perplexing to Jewish commentators at various times. Rav Samuel ben Nachman wrote, expressing his own understanding that the singular-plural constructions tended to support the position of the trinitarian Christians,


"When Moses was engaged in writing the Torah, he had to write the work of each day. When he came to the verse, AND GOD SAID; LET US MAKE MAN, etc., he said: 'Sovereign of the Universe! Why dost Thou furnish an excuse to heretics?' (for maintaining a plurality of deity). 'Write,' replied He; 'whoever wishes to err may err.'"

Nachman saw that Genesis 1:26 was furnishing "an excuse to heretics" in that it gave them reason to believe and teach "a plurality of deity". His statement against the plurality of the singular deity strongly suggests that he has the trinitarian doctrine in mind. Rabbi Simlai also recognised the difficulty produced by this singular-plural phenomenon, and was at a loss to provide a convincing explanation for it when questioned about it by "heretics".


"Wherever you find a point supporting the heretics, you find the refutation at its side. They [the heretics] asked him again: 'What is meant by, AND GOD SAID: LET US MAKE MAN?' 'Read what follows,' replied he: 'not, "And gods created War@b=Y!w^ [plural verb] man" is written here, but "And God created ar*b=Y!w^ [singular verb]' (Genesis 1:27). When they [the heretics] went out his disciples said to him: 'Them you have dismissed with a mere makeshift, but how will you answer us?"

Here, he basically blew some smoke at the "heretics". They had questioned him about why Genesis 1:26 uses a plural noun with the singular verb conjugation, and he responded with a non-answer where he simply assumes the "elohim" to be singular (simply impossible) and joins it with the singular verb in v. 27, without any explanation as to why the "elohim" in v. 27 was any different than that in v. 26. His pupils recognised the deficiency of his response.

One of the most common arguments forwarded against reliance upon this singular-plural grammatical oddity is to suggest that the plural nouns used to refer to God are in fact the "plural of majesty", also known as "the royal we". God was merely speaking of Himself in majestic terms befitting His position and dignity. Unfortunately for the unitarians who make this argument, it has no basis in fact, and is an anachronism of much later usage back onto the earlier Hebrew revelation. As Nassi has pointed out, the Hebrew scriptures show no evidence of any figure using the plural of majesty to refer to themselves, not David, not Pharaoh, not Nebuchadnezzar, nor any others who might rightly be expected to have used this artifice had it existed in their day. Further, Nassi points out that the use by monarchs of "the royal we" always appears in the form of direct commands or addresses, yet the biblical use of "Elohim" finds just as much use in narrative and descriptive passages.

In fact, the plural of majesty does not even seem to have found any sort of widespread use until the rise of centralised, strong nation states in Europe during the Renaissance. Classics scholar and self-described monarchist Richard Toporoski argues that the artifice first appeared in the reign of Diocletian (284-305 AD), and that its use in Europe was carried on and passed down by the Germanic kings who eventually brought about the fall of the Western Empire. Richard Davies also pointed out that the "plural of majesty" did not exist until more modern times, and certainly wasn't applicable to the Hebrew scriptures5. Concerning the "plural of majesty", Genesius states,


"Jewish grammarians call such plurals...plur. virium or virtutum; later grammarians call them plur. excellentiae, magnitudinis, or plur. maiestaticus. This last name may have been suggested by the "we" used by kings when speaking of themselves (cf. already I Macc. 10:19, 11:31); and the plural used by God in Genesis 1:26, and 11:7, Isaiah 6:8 has been incorrectly explained in this way...It is best explained as a plural of self-deliberation. The use of the plural as a form of respectful address is quite foreign to Hebrew."

Even within strictly rabbinical sources, the plural of majesty was not considered to be a really viable explanation for these troublesome passages. Ibn Ezra quotes Rav Saadiah Gaon's commentary on Genesis where that commentator attempts to explain Genesis 1:26 on the basis of a majestic plural artifice. Ibn Ezra refutes this view, and suggests that God was speaking to the angels in consultation instead7. Ibn Ezra's position, often itself suggested by modern Jewish and other unitarian expositors, fails both because of it would ultimately suggest that the angels share the same "image" as God, and also because Isaiah 40:12-14 clearly denies that there was any others besides Himself from whom He took counsel in creation....

[footnotes obmitted]

Answer 6

counting to 3 was not don at those times

Answer 7

oh cool. i was refferred to. nobody ever refers to me. i must break out the wine and celebrate.

Answer 8

Messiah : The Criteria

Judge for yourself:
Did Jesus fulfill ALL these criteria?

The Jewish tradition of "The Messiah" has its foundation in numerous biblical references, and understands "The Messiah" to be a human being - without any overtone of deity or divinity - who will bring about certain changes in the world and fulfill certain criteria before he can be acknowledged as "The Messiah".
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First of all, he must be Jewish - "...you may appoint a king over you, whom the L-rd your G-d shall choose: one from among your brethren shall you set as king over you." (Deuteronomy 17:15)

He must be a member of the tribe of Judah - "The staff shall not depart from Judah, nor the sceptre from between his feet..." (Genesis 49:10)

To be a member of the tribe of Judah, the person must have a biological father who is a member of the tribe of Judah.

He must be a direct male descendant of King David and King Solomon, his son - "And when your days (David) are fulfilled, and you shall sleep with your fathers, I will set up your seed after you, who shall issue from your bowels, and I will establish his kingdom. He shall build a house for my name, and I will make firm the throne of his kingdom forever..." (2 Samuel 7:12 - 13)

The genealogy of the New Testament is inconsistent. While it gives two accounts of the genealogy of Joseph, it states clearly that he is not the biological father of Jesus. One of the genealogies is through Nathan and not Solomon altogether!

He must gather the Jewish people from exile and return them to Israel -"And he shall set up a banner for the nations, and shall assemble the outcasts of Israel, and gather together the dispersed of Judah from the four corners of the earth." (Isaiah 11:12)

Are all Jews living in Israel? Have all Jews EVER lived in Israel since the time of Jesus?

He must rebuild the Temple in Jerusalem - "...and I will set my sanctuary in their midst forever and my tabernacle shall be with them.." (Ezekiel 37:26 - 27)

At last check, there is NO Temple in Jerusalem. And worse, it was shortly after Jesus died that the Temple was DESTROYED! Just the opposite of this prophecy!

He will rule at a time of world-wide peace - "...they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruning hooks; nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war anymore." (Micah 4:3)

Have you seen a newspaper lately? Are we living in a state of complete world peace? Has there ever been peace since the time of Jesus?

He will rule at a time when the Jewish people will observe G-d's commandments - "My servant David shall be king over them; and they shall all have one shepherd. They shall follow My ordinances and be careful to observe My statutes." (Ezekiel 37:24)

The Torah is the Jewish guide to life, and its commandments are the ones referred to here. Do all Jews observe all the commandments? Christianity, in fact, often discourages observance of the commandments in Torah, in complete opposition to this prophecy.

He will rule at a time when all people will come to acknowledge and serve one G-d - "And it shall come to pass that from one new moon to another and from one Sabbath to another, shall all flesh come to worship before Me, says the L-rd" (Isaiah 66:23)

there are still millions if not billions of people in the world today who adhere to paganistic and polytheistic religions. It is clear that we have not yet seen this period of human history unfold.

All of these criteria are best stated in the book of Ezekiel Chapter 37 verses 24-28:

And David my servant shall be king over them; and they shall all have one shepherd. they shall also follow My judgments and observe My statutes, and do them. And they shall dwell in the land that I have given to Yaakov my servant, in which your fathers have dwelt and they shall dwell there, they and their children, and their children's children forever; and my servant David shall be their prince forever. Moreover, I will make a covenant of peace with them, it shall be an everlasting covenant with them, which I will give them; and I will multiply them and I will set my sanctuary in the midst of them forevermore. And my tabernacle shall be with them: and I will be their G-d and they will be my people. Then the nations shall know that I am the L-rd who sanctifies Israel, when My sanctuary will be in the midst of them forevermore.

If an individual fails to fulfill even one of these conditions, then he cannot be "The Messiah." A careful analysis of these criteria shows us that to date, no one has fulfilled every condition.

Certainly NOT Jesus.
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