(BLUSHING BIGTIME---help me out, please!) Fell asleep at a BAD time in nursing school and never took to maternity/child care anyway.... (and brain is NOT processing Google very well today)
Woman is type A blood; becomes pregnant by type B male. (Assume both Rh+, to keep it easy.) What blood types could the fetus be?
And why DOESN'T a woman develop the equivalent of antibodies to the "foreign" blood of the fetus (I assume)? With Rh incompatibility, you'd better give RHOgam or comparable, or you get increased fetal losses with each pregnancy, IIRC..... but how can a woman with one blood type successively AND SUCCESSFULLY bear living children to an "incompatible" father with different type? The placenta can't be THAT effective a barrier, can it?
Need a quick and relatively simple answer (or link) timely, pls---am digging thru refs now, but help MUCH appreciated!
2006-10-18
04:10:06
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6 answers
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asked by
samiracat
5
in
Science & Mathematics
➔ Medicine
It's not Rh incompat and RHOgam that's knocking me for a very confused loop---it's why a blood-type A female (for example) can repeatedly give birth to blood-type B neonates, without developing some sort of antibody problem SIMILAR to that seen in Rh disease.... (if that makes it any clearer)
2006-10-18
06:47:10 ·
update #1