It's either a misprint or they want to change the context to fit their way of thinking. What it implies in the Jehovah's Witness version is that the criminal was going to die and lie in wait until such a time Jesus deems for him to go to Paradise. Don't exactly know what purpose that would serve. Paul said to be absent from the body is to be present with the Lord. Doesn't leave much wiggle room for any type of 'limbo' or the dead's returning spirit to haunt you. lol
Have a great day!!!
2006-10-18 03:27:28
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answer #1
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answered by Coo coo achoo 6
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One’s understanding of Luke 23:43 is influenced by the punctuation used by the translator. There was no punctuation in the original Greek Bible manuscripts. The Encyclopedia Americana (1956, Vol. XXIII, p. 16) states: “No attempt to punctuate is apparent in the earlier manuscripts and inscriptions of the Greeks.” Not until the 9th century C.E. did such punctuation come into use. Should Luke 23:43 read, “Truly, I say to you, today you will be with me in Paradise” (Revised Standard Version), or should it be, ‘Truly I say to you today, You will be with me in Paradise’? The teachings of Christ and the rest of the Bible must be the basis for determination, and not a comma inserted in the text centuries after Jesus said those words.
The Emphasised Bible translated by J. B. Rotherham agrees with the punctuation in the New World Translation. In a footnote on Luke 23:43, German Bible translator L. Reinhardt says: “The punctuation presently used by most translators in this verse is undoubtedly false and contradictory to the entire way of thinking of Christ and the evildoer. . . . Christ certainly did not understand paradise to be a subdivision of the realm of the dead, but rather the restoration of a paradise on earth.”
When would Jesus ‘get into his kingdom’ and fulfill his Father’s purpose to make the earth a paradise? The book of Revelation, written about 63 years after the statements recorded at Luke 23:42, 43 were made, indicates that these events were still in the future.
If you would like further information or a free home Bible study, please contact Jehovah's Witnesses at the local Kingdom Hall. Or visit http://www.watchtower.org
2006-10-18 03:49:09
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answer #2
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answered by Jeremy Callahan 4
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First there are not any commas in Greek. So it is the translator's accountability to place the comma in English (because of the fact English demands commas) you could desire to ask your self, did Jesus pass to Paradise the day he died? No the bible is extremely sparkling, he went to the grave. the place did the evil doer pass with Jesus that day, it replaced into to no longer Paradise, yet in addition to the grave. as a result the main appropriate region of the comma is in the NWT. Edit the unique call of Jehovah's Witnesses replaced into "international Bible scholars" or "Bible scholars" in accordance with the place in the international they have been. Russellite replaced right into a slur given by using opposers. So in case you call your self a bible student, you're figuring out your self with Jehovah's Witnesses.
2016-10-19 22:36:53
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answer #3
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answered by montesi 4
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It is really sad that so many people don't really know the Bible and are quick to condemn Jehovah's Witnesses, when in reality they depend on hearsay instead of investigating things for themselves. As two responders have already said (and received thumbs down votes for their answers), the language in which the Greek Scriptures were written contained NO PUNCTUATION. No commas, no quotation marks, no exclamation points, etc. Since we speak English, punctuation marks have to be added for the text to give us the correct meaning of what Jesus was saying. In Luke 23:43, by placing the comma before "today", it would mean that Jesus was telling the evildoer next to him that they would be in paradise on that very day. However, that could not be the case because after Jesus execution, he would be asleep in the grave for parts of three days. That is definitely NOT paradise. By putting the comma after "today" shows that Jesus was telling the evildoer at that moment (on that day) that at a future time he would be in paradise--NOT right after they were executed.
One responder shows his ignorance of Jehovah's Witnesses by saying they have a doctrine of 'soul-sleep". I'd love to ask him this: When Lazarus had died, what condition did Jesus say Lazarus was in? He was SLEEPING in death. See John 11:11-14. Death is likened to for those who have died until they are awakened in the resurrection.
2006-10-18 04:12:06
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answer #4
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answered by LineDancer 7
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ok...gonna inform you to thinking outside your realm of usual thihnking here, cause we all know His thinking is above ours, and his thoughts and ways are above ours. He knows things we just cant comprehend. And this may be one of them. NO MATTER where you put the comma, it would mean the same thing to YOU and your soul as an individual; it would mean TODAY to you! listen, when you die, are you conscious? When you die, does time exist? NO...When you awake from a coma, it is as is you got knocked out a minute ago. This is the same concept when you die, you are unconscious and time does not exist to YOU. Time only exists to everyone else LIVING. So when you die, even if Jesus comes down from the sky in 10,000 years; to that dead person he will be brought up from the ground as it says in the bible, and it will be as if it was the same day he died!!! Instead of arguing who is right or wrong, make sure you have a close relationship with Jesus, and ask him to help you understand the Word. You will understand more because he will give you more knowledge as your Faith increases. And when your Faith increases, you will sin less and follow his law. For only when you have Faith, than will you follow His laws. Are you living in Sin? May be why you dont understand what you question and argue about. Please get as close as you can to Jesus. Your relationship with him MUST be above ALL else here on earth. AMEN.
2014-11-21 08:13:45
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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Because the King James Version is incorrect. Think about it. Did Jesus actually go to heaven that day? No--he died and the Bible says he was in hell (grave) for three days. So, Jesus was saying that "I tell you today, you will be with me in paradise, The criminal was promised a resurrection to life on a paradise earth, which the meek ones will soon inherit. Jesus will be our King and in a sense he will be with all who inherit the earth. We will welcome back the man who died alongside Jesus when he is brought back to life here on earth, along with all the others who are resurrected in the near future.
The NW Translation is correct.
2006-10-18 03:53:27
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answer #6
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answered by Micah 6
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when the bible was actually written there was no punctuation to be found. english rules will not allow a sentence to run on without some sort of stopping period. so the punctuation was added later by those who didnt really understand what the writer was trying to convey through words. thus there are many misinterpritations in the bible due to the placement of such marks. the actual text in which you refer to is describing is very misleading to many people some think that jesus was telling the man that he was going with him to heaven that very day. however in fact the bible teaches that death is not the passage to another place but a sleep untill the second comming so really the JW version was interprited correctly (sad to say) if we were to translate it to something we would understand it would read like this "today i tell you, you will be with me in paradise" telling him not to worry that y our sins are forgiven and you will go up in the second coming
2006-10-18 03:27:49
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answer #7
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answered by kenshiro 2
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Notice the footnote for the scripture at Luke 23:43 in the Reference Bible of Jehovah's Witnesses:
“Today.” Although WH puts a comma in the Gr. text before the word for “today,” commas were not used in Gr. uncial mss. In keeping with the context, we omit the comma before “today.” Syc (fifth cent. C.E.) renders this text: “Amen, I say to thee to-day that with me thou shalt be in the Garden of Eden.”—F. C. Burkitt, The Curetonian Version of the Four Gospels, Vol. I, Cambridge, 1904.
2006-10-18 05:12:16
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answer #8
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answered by binolong 2
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According to the footonote for this scripture in the Kingdom Interlinear version, "Westcott and Hort text puts a comman in Greek text before the word for "today". In the original Greek, no comma is found. Hence we omit comma before "today".
They neglected to mention that there is also no comma AFTER "today" in the Greek text, but they put one there anyway
2006-10-18 16:10:24
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Think more carefully about the statemeant Jesus made.
If he ment today you will be with ME in Paradise, he lied, because he was in the grave 3 days and then he was resurrected.
If he meant truly I tell you today, you will be with ME in paradise, he was speaking the truth, because it was 40 days before his ascention to Heaven.
2006-10-18 23:22:22
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answer #10
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answered by hollymichal 6
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