and stuff like that or would he just come right out and speak to you like you speak to him.
2006-10-17 15:49:34 · 21 answers · asked by Midge 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
That is how everyone talked 2000 years ago. I think if he was here with us today he would talk just like us.
2006-10-17 15:51:51 · answer #1 · answered by b.reynolds 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, He wouldn't speak like that to us at all. The reason we have words like thee, thou, hath, art, brethren, etc. in the Bible, is because it was first translated into English way back when for King James. Jesus didn't speak English to people back then though. He spoke Aramaic, which is a language similar to Arabic.
So He would, and still does speak to people in their own language. He still does because sometimes we hear Him speaking into our heart telling us to do something. Not all the time though. He usually speaks to us by giving us a divine inspiration, you know, a thought that just seems to pop out of no where that helps you achieve your project just as you want to.
2006-10-17 23:03:24 · answer #2 · answered by stebdawg 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
He never did. That all came from a 400 year old translation into early Modern English. Almost a separate language from what we speak today. Jesus spoke Aramaic and Hebrew, just like everyone else He knew.
2006-10-17 22:59:45 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yeah, he'd probably speak to each person in a way they could clearly understand.
Thee's and thy's are a way to distinguish the plural form of you (a group) from the singular point of view (direct to one person). For example, if I was addressing a group of people instead of a person, I'd still use "you", because I use "modern English".
If I wrote down a list of rules in modern English, the reader might find it hard to determine whether I was talking directly to them, or to everyone in general.
The reason Old English is still used sometimes is an attempt to clarify the intended reciever of the message. Making it "personal" with "thee's" "thine's" and "thou's" instead of just "you" was the intent of the people who translated the Hebrew and Greek into English for us.
Peace
2006-10-17 23:00:32 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Those thee's and thou's and thine's were an interpretation by Europeans in the middle ages of what was originally written in Aramaic and Hebrew. He would talk like we do now!
2006-10-17 22:53:15 · answer #5 · answered by Elizabeth L 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Jesus never said "Thee," "Thine," or "Drawing Nigh."
He spoke in Aramaic or Hebrew, and he spoke the common language of the people at his time. So no, he would not say that today. There'd be no reason for it.
2006-10-17 22:51:48 · answer #6 · answered by Developing Love 3 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus Never did speak like that-- that is the OLD Shakespearean English that was used at the time of the KJV Bible Translation.
Jesus spoke HEBREW almost exclusively -- IT can still be heard is Synagogues today.
2006-10-17 22:53:16 · answer #7 · answered by whynotaskdon 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jesus didn't speak middle English. The New Testament was translated from Greek, you know. He spoke Aramaic.
2006-10-17 22:51:38 · answer #8 · answered by AuroraDawn 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Jesus spoke in Aramaic- the lingo of the day, not King James English- which was also the lingo of the day.
It is only tradition that leaves the 'thou' and 'thine' in modern 'church speak'.
2006-10-17 22:52:42 · answer #9 · answered by Madkins007 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
That was the English of King James's time when the bible was translated into English. Jesus spoke Aramaic.
2006-10-17 22:51:09 · answer #10 · answered by The Gadfly 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. He would be a modern man. However, He would be appalled at the way his followers have reinterpreted and abused his teachings. He would forgive true mistakes, but not things people do that they know are wrong, hoping for forgiveness.
2006-10-17 22:54:15 · answer #11 · answered by gloria b 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋