I LOVE this question!
The answer is NO.
Only John himself refers to himself as "the disciple whom Jesus loved", making references to this at least 4 times: John 19:26, John 20:2, John 21:7, John 21:20.
The reason I love this question is as follows:
When I first came to understand that it was John referring to himself, it startled me! I was like, "man, this guy is full of himself", etc.
In other words, I understood it as a prideful comment.
...but that was when I was clouded with a works-based mentality!
The "Gospel" is NOT "do good, and you will be accepted by God". That is, it is NOT "be good, and you will be loved by Jesus." This is BACKWARDS!
The Gospel, or good news, is that salvation is by GRACE alone. That is, unmerited, undeserved love/blessing/salvation is freely given to all the asking and receiving through faith in Jesus Christ.
John knew this well! He wrote all about love in his letters - see 1 John! He writes:
"This is love: not that we loved God, but that He loved us and sent His Son as an atoning sacrifice for our sins." -1 John 4:10
Isn't this amazing?!?
Even while we were YET sinners, Christ loved us...and willingly laid down His life for us! Again, even while we WERE yet sinners - at enmity with Him - even THEN did He love us.
We only know what love is in this manner:
"This is how we know what love is: Jesus Christ laid down His life for us..." -1 John 3:16
Therefore, to refer to oneself as "a disciple whom Jesus loves" is not a prideful comment at all! It is a MEEK statement of truth.
In other words, in and of myself...there is nothing that has merited the love of Jesus Christ...the love of God. Yet, Jesus loves me. He demonstrated His love for ME by dying on the cross for ME - yes, even me!
THAT, my friends, is the Gospel of the grace of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ!
Grace and peace,
yachadhoo, a disciple whom Jesus loves!
2006-10-18 08:26:49
·
answer #1
·
answered by yachadhoo 6
·
2⤊
0⤋
Luke would basically be discounted, as he wasn't one of the twelve disciples, and never knew John to be able to say that.
However, it is of common knowledge that John referred to himself as the disciple that Jesus loved best. No one else ever referred to John this way; it is a bit of dry humor that he was so sure of himself lol.
2006-10-17 13:42:21
·
answer #2
·
answered by arewethereyet 7
·
0⤊
0⤋
He was the beloved disciple of Christ.
He is the one Christ entrusted his mother at the Crucifixion.
2006-10-17 18:59:34
·
answer #3
·
answered by Anonymous
·
0⤊
0⤋
the real authors name isn't know. the other gospels don't give john this title.
2006-10-17 13:23:42
·
answer #4
·
answered by fenian1916 5
·
0⤊
0⤋
Ask the person who wrote John. I forget what his name was.
2006-10-17 13:20:32
·
answer #5
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
1⤋
No. And nobody's really sure if it even refers to John. Maybe it was Mary Magdalene or Judas.
2006-10-17 13:20:39
·
answer #6
·
answered by Gene Rocks! 5
·
0⤊
2⤋
No; they don't. however, you can figure out it was John (Yochanon) because he laid his head on Jesus' breast. This is a place of intimacy; not to be confused with sexuality.
2006-10-17 13:28:11
·
answer #7
·
answered by Anonymous
·
1⤊
0⤋
I did'nt find 'beloved disciple' in the KJV. What are you using?
2006-10-17 13:25:02
·
answer #8
·
answered by rangedog 7
·
0⤊
1⤋
I believe that they don't.
2006-10-17 13:20:50
·
answer #9
·
answered by Kidd! 6
·
0⤊
1⤋