What is the "West lothian question".?

Question

referance in a programme tonight.

Answer 1

It was the question posed by West Lothian MP Tam Dalyell during devolution debates of the 1970s: why should Scottish MPs be allowed to vote on English-only matters at Westminster, but English MPs cannot vote on the equivalent issues for Scotland once they are devolved to a Scottish parliament?

There has never been an adequate answer - the system created in 1999 is simply unfair, and absurd when bills affecting schools and hospitals in England only are passed only with the votes of Scottish MPs whose constituents won't be affected by these bills.

Answer 2

It's a question that irritates the English. Scottish MP's can vote on purely English matters but they can't vote on Scottish matters that have been devolved to the Scottish Assembly (and before that the Scottish Grand Committee). It's sour grapes really in that during the Thatcher years at one point there was no Conservative MP's in Scotland and no one complained we were getting a raw deal.

Answer 3

It's to do with the fact that English MP's can't vote in the Scottish parliament but Scottish MP's can vote on matters concerning the English in the British Parliament

Answer 4

Thank you,I learned something new .