According to the Hebrew Bible, Jacob (who was renamed Israel) had one daughter and twelve sons by four different women
ah...humm.. one daughter, twelve sons by
FOUR DIFFERENT WOMEN !!!
oh. Then adultery wasn't a sin in 'those days' - is that it?
2006-10-16 08:18:11 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I am laughing. I am being spqanked relentlessly because of this question!! Humm...well let's see, Jacob had children by FOUR different women!! humm..Then if NOT married, he committed FORNICATION. oh my.....
2006-10-16 08:33:58 · update #1
now...why would God find it necessary to cchange his word? Ask yourselves. Why was fornication, adultery, sex outside of marriage, sex before marriage...however you wnat to define it all considered sins and then suddenly, were not.......
2006-10-16 08:37:37 · update #2
........ro were not...and then suddenly
were
2006-10-16 08:38:31 · update #3
You're right--it is very contradicting. I think morality and religion should not go hand in hand necessarily.
2006-10-16 08:20:48 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The bible never states that Jacob was sinless by a long shot.
He allowed himself to become a baby making machine in the race for male babies between his two wives. The other two women involved were servents of his two wives and had no choice in the matter of having sex and children by Jacob.
Many other righteous men and women used by God in the bible had similar weaknessess and sins.
In the case of Jacob, he felt deceived by his uncle about his first bride being leah instead of the woman he was in Love with, rebeckah. He was deceived, but instead of trusting in God, Jacob stubbornly insisted that he be given his Love and had to accept Leah as well. The bible states that he "hated" Leah, but he did fulfill his marital duties to her by having sex with her in order to gain the bride of his choice, Rebeckah.
No matter the detail, Jacob was wrong as well as the one (Labin) who deceived him.
God used Jacobs weakness and sin for good, but that did not make what Jacob did right. For further explanation of this, you can read the book of Romans which explains that even if you do wrong to get a right outcome, it is still wrong.
You will not find one perfect fleshly man or woman in the entire bible. You will find one perfect "word" that became flesh, but even though he became flesh in order to fulfill prophecy and to save us from ourselves, it remains that he was not just a fleshly man, he was God himself, here to pay the debt for the sins you mentioned in your question and all others also.
So, yes, adultry was a sin then and now. Nothing has changed except for the fact that the debt has been paid and we are now awaiting the judgement for all those that have not accepted that it has been paid.
2006-10-16 08:51:40 · answer #2 · answered by cindy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
jacob was married to each of the mothers of his children, adultery is a sin because it does not protect the rights of the mothers (fathers cant be compelled to pay child support etc) but marriage to more than one woman, so long as none of them mind can work. For some people.
2006-10-16 08:22:28 · answer #3 · answered by miss_thinkative 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If u would ahve paid attention, in the Old testament, God had different rules then. He even changed them later on in the first book in the New testament. In those times, marriying ur husbands' brother to keep the family name was what was allowed. But now it sin't God changed all thsoe and now we follow the rules of the New Testment. If u need help still, just read the New Testament or the book of Matthew.
2006-10-16 08:26:33 · answer #4 · answered by Mia 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
have you read the bible? biblical figures disobey commandments all the time. besides, jacob was not a jew. he didn't have to obey jewish commandments that had not even been given yet. in addition, the bible does not forbid polygamous marriages. the reason people don't have multiple wives anymore is because this practice was abolished by the rabbis a long time ago.
2006-10-16 08:39:25 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Adultery: sex outside of marriage.
Jacob had 4 wife's. It would be nice if you could at least get you facts straight Before you accused someone of a sin.
2006-10-16 08:26:09 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
In those days it was common that a man had more than 1 wife. In this case he had 2 wives and each of those wives offered him a servant so that they could have children for them when they couldn't have any. So it was the wives choice, not Jacobs...
2006-10-16 08:21:31 · answer #7 · answered by sonflower 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That wasn't adultery by standards of the day. Two women were Jacob's wives and two were his legal concubines.
2006-10-16 08:21:51 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
And why would you think that this was not a sin? Because it is described in the Bible? The Bible describes many examples of sin.
2006-10-16 09:21:30 · answer #9 · answered by PaulCyp 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
do u know may be those 4 different women were his wives at different time period. and he accept and was responsible for his children. so its not sin or adultery
2006-10-16 08:22:26 · answer #10 · answered by shahzebb 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
And what about Lot? After leaving the towns of Sodom and Gomorah, he went up into the hills and had sex with both of his daughters.
2006-10-16 08:21:37 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋