See, for example, Exodus 21:20-21, Deuteronomy 15:17, Leviticus 25:44-46,
Ephesians 6:5-7, 1 Timothy 6:1, Colossians 3:22, Titus 2:9, 1 Peter 2:18,21.
2006-10-16 06:03:38 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Probably for much the same reason it condones divorce:
Matt. 19:7 “Why then,” they asked, “did Moses command that a man give his wife a certificate of divorce and send her away?” 8 Jesus replied, “Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning.
It obviously isn't what God had in mind from the beginning, a clue is that Jesus said the 2nd most important command was to love your neighbor as yourself. I doubt if anyone loves themselves so little that they want to be enslaved, so you can't really obey that command and be a slave owner.
2006-10-16 06:10:03 · answer #1 · answered by Rossonero NorCal SFECU 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
That does not mean that the Bible condones slavery. Just because something is in the Bible doesn't mean that God approves of that action.
But Michael44 is right. There is a big difference between slavery in Bible times than in US history. Usually slavery served an economic function. They didn't have bankruptcy laws, so if you got yourself into a bad situation you sold yourself and/or your family into slavery. It wasn't necessarily all bad; at least it was an option for suvival.
Also you must remember the Jubilee year. God had planned it so that there was a slavery liberation every 7th year. Read Leviticus 25:8-54.
2006-10-16 13:19:31 · answer #2 · answered by cnm 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The 'slavery' of the Bible is not the slavery we think of (that existed in the United States in the 1800s).
Biblical slavery is much more like 'employment' today. Back then there was no welfare or social programs, so employment was VERY important to those with no education and little skills. The 'slaves' were mostly treated well and almost as part of the family.
2006-10-16 13:07:15 · answer #3 · answered by just me 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
We are all one in Christ Jesus!
Make sure you are applying the 20/20 when you are reading! :)
(Slavery was acceptable up until about 150 years ago)...so it's probably because 2000+ years ago is was the culture of the time.
2006-10-16 13:08:11 · answer #4 · answered by Salvation is a gift, Eph 2:8-9 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It doesn't condone it inasmuch as it says to tolerate it if you are under it. All wrongs will be righted in the end, is what he is saying. You may be a slave now, but perhaps not forever, and those who have enslaved you will be delt with by God himself.
2006-10-16 13:08:25 · answer #5 · answered by . 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
slavery, in judaism, is drastically different than what we think of. for example, if there's only one pillow, the slave gets it!
the talmud has an expression: 'one who buys a slave buys a master!"
but I don't know what christians think slaves are.
cheerio
2006-10-16 13:07:02 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It does not condone rather show hardship of groups of people in biblical time and show how they over came it.
2006-10-16 13:08:02 · answer #7 · answered by victor t 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
any one who sins is a slave to sin
I guess that means you and me
2006-10-16 13:07:01 · answer #8 · answered by proscunio 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋