Hey, sorry I deleted my question about the New Testament, once I googled it I felt like an idiot. I didn't know that the Old testament is the Torah and the New Testament is the Bible...
naiive...
I've noticed most, but not ALL, of the questions here can be answered by googling....
If you want, I'll post it up again and I'll pick you as the best answer, as long as you're not being mean or anything... lol
by the way, what does "rightly dividing the word" mean?
2006-10-15 12:36:56
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answer #1
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answered by ←Betty B→ 2
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The only thing that changed in the two covenants is the people and the place where God writes his laws, not the "rules" or laws themselves (read and reflect on Hebrews 8).
Hebrews 8:8 -- "...because [God,] finding fault with them,... 9...because they did not continue in My covenant..."
Hebrews 8:10 -- "For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, says the Lord: I will put My laws in their mind and write them on their hearts; and I will be their God, and they shall be My people."
Note that the new covenant was still to contain God's Laws -- the same laws -- but instead of writing them on stone, he will write them on the hearts of those whom he would call into his Kingdom.
Peter was shown a VISION! Visions are given in symbols. In Peter's vision the creatures represented gentile people (who were considered by the Jews to be unclean in the same way that these creatures were), not food that could now be eaten (read and reflect: Acts 10:10-17, 11:1-18). Peter never ate unclean food; and the vision was never meant to convey that there was a change in the law. Peter was smart enough to realize that God does not change; "he is the same yesterday, today, and forever" (Hebrews 13:8, Malachi 3:6), that the vision must have meant something other than its superficial appearance (Act 10:17).
To rightly divide the Word of God, one must examine ALL the relevant Scriptures, not just a piece here or there, out of context, as is commonly done, even among theologians.
2006-10-15 18:59:35
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answer #2
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answered by BC 6
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Peter's diet was not expanded.
If you rightly divide this text, you'll see the food he was being shown to eat was not relating to food at all, but to the unclean Gentiles coming into the Kingdom of G-d. G-d was showing Peter that the covenant of faith now applied to both Jews AND Gentiles (represented by the unclean pigs).
Peter never ingested unclean foods.
2006-10-15 18:26:16
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answer #3
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answered by Anonymous
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hi , brother !! I've just seen your most previous question and I believe the bible has an answer to it . Paul writing to one of the churches ( sorry, I had this text marked in my bible but it is at home right now.... I may provide it for you if you may ask ) : STUDY to show yourself APPROVED UNTO GOD, a workman that need not be ashamed, RIGHTLY DIVIDING THE WORD OF TRUTH. So You must first of all STUDY with the help of the HOLY SPIRIT. In John 16 : 13 , Jesus promised to send the HOLY SPIRIT who will LEAD US TO ALL TRUTH and SHOW US THE THINGS TO COME ( PROPHECIES ). So God has His people ( church ) as the pure lady in Revelation 12 .. etc. who will be used by God in these LAST days to proclaim His TRUTH and TRUE INTERPRETATION of His WORDS and PROPHECIES to the world before Jesus returns...Brother, I invite you to join the Seventh Day Adventist church and all your queries and confusions will be solved for I believe this is the true church in these last days which God uses in the preparation of souls for Jesus' soon return... About Peter' case ( Acts 10 ? ). You see, Peter never ate pork and other unclean animals...even Jesus too . You see, God's word never contradicts itself as some think. Unclean animals was first mentioned when Noah was told to take in TWO UCLEANs and SEVEN CLEANs from every species into the ark...So you see, well before the Jews, God had already classified the animals into unclean or clean. In Peter's case, it is SYMBOLIC : CLEAN animals symbolises the JEWS and UNCLEAN animals , the HEATHEN NATIONS ... Peter in here was being advised by God to preach the good news about Salvation to the non-Jews ( unclean ) .This Peter had not done before ! You see, one of the texts near to the end of this chapter states that the meaning of this dream was then finally understood by Peter in that GOD IS NO RESPECTOR OF PERSONS...IN EVERY NATION UNDER THE SUN , IF ANYONE FEARS GOD , HE IS ACCEPTED OF GOD as God did to Cornelius...This vision is therefore symbolic and should not be taken literally as an excuse by all other christian denominations to eat unclean foods like pork... We SDA's don't and I thank the HOLY SPIRIT for showing the way to His true church in these last days so that we will rightly divide his truth and be APPROVED OF GOD.. May God Bless You
2006-10-15 18:48:53
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answer #4
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answered by srjione 3
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I guess Peter did eat God told him to.I don't think Peter would purposely disobey Jesus command.
In Christ in Love,
TJ57
2006-10-15 18:29:06
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answer #5
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answered by TJ 57 4
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Did peter eat?..no!!!
2006-10-15 18:16:19
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answer #6
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answered by Royal Racer Hell=Grave © 7
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