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2006-10-15 09:54:13 · 7 answers · asked by savefromthewater 1 in Education & Reference Home Schooling

7 answers

Remember...
Not all american whites can trace their ancestry to slave-owners or traffickers. Many whites came to this country long after slavery ended. For example many Irish, Italians, Eastern Europeans, and most Jews came to the country in the late 1800s and early 1900s. In addition, these groups (and others) were discriminated against when they arrived, so they may sympathize. American Jews in the Reform Jewish movement, for example, were closely allied to Dr. MLK in the 1950s.

As for the whites whose ancestors traded in African slaves generations ago, they are several generations removed from slavery. Few of us would punish ourselves for the actions of our great-great-great grandparents.

The most difficult aspect of slavery for many modern White folks is how to create a just and equitable society today without giving up many of the privlidges that come with being white in 2006. Of course, this cannot be done - but modern whites seem intent of having their cake and eating it too. For example, wanting great public schools for all kids and even better public schools for their own kids. Or wanting harsh drug laws for all kids but expect a slap on the risk when their white daughter is caught drinking underage or buying pot from her suburban dealer.

2006-10-15 10:39:56 · answer #1 · answered by Lucky 2 · 2 2

What do you mean "white people"? Indians enslaved Indians, Africans enslaved Africans, Asians enslave Asians, Europeans enslaved Europeans and so on and so forth. White people did not "invent" the idea of slavery. Slavery was around in the "Cradle of Civilization" which is not European but more people of Arab decent and it probably goes further back then that.

May I remind you that slavery still exists in many countries but mostly now it is sex slaves, and women and young girls are the victims. Also, the Bible justifies slavery and not just of a particular color but of other tribes, which isn't surprising considering that the Bible was inspired by the Babylonian Code of Hammurabi which has laws about slavery also.

Your question should be "how did MAN rationalize slavery?". I have small summary for you; it was because when "man" wrote their horrid laws down, they claimed said laws were from a powerful deity in the sky who gave them permission. Those laws are unfair and unkind to many people, especially women, children, slaves, and people of other tribes.

When you question only one race it comes off as sort of, well, racist. You need to study history long before the history of U.S. slavery in order to understand from where slavery began and the ideas behind it.

2006-10-15 23:01:02 · answer #2 · answered by FreeThinker 3 · 1 0

I have to agree with Lucky up until the last paragraph. Isn't that what "everyone" wants? Everyone wants the best for their kids, not just white people. And for this question, I hate the ignorance behind the idea of it. It pisses me off to see other people act like I oowe them something because I'm white. Well, my grandparents came here from Ireland. Slavery wasn't initiated by the Whites in America at that time either. It was actually by spanish and French (i believe) companies that saw what they figured to be a perfectly legal, humane, and profitable business. So to answer your question as a White pesron, I don't rationalize with slavery, I wasn't part of it nor was my family. It was stupid by today's ideals but it happened, get over it.

2006-10-15 18:24:00 · answer #3 · answered by xxplalmxx 3 · 1 1

At that time people took it as thier right. A lot of this was backed up by church and government and it fit in with the whole clonisation thing. It sounds horrible but people thought africans where better off in slavery than living in Africa.

2006-10-15 17:00:22 · answer #4 · answered by foogill 4 · 0 2

Another way slave traders justified slavery was by considering Africans not to be human beings but a species closer to animals.

2006-10-15 22:44:39 · answer #5 · answered by appletini7 4 · 1 1

During the Middle Ages, racists were originally able to use a popular notion from Genesis 9 of the Bible as theological justification for the oppression of African people. "Genesis 9.18-29 has been popularly understood to mean that Ham [Noah's son] was cursed, and this understanding has often been used to justify oppression of African people, the descendants of Ham." "One of the most damaging misconceptions of the Bible is that it sanctions a curse on African people because because Ham was cursed. Since Ham is regarded as the father of African people, this belief implies that ham's descendants are also cursed. Incalculable harm has resulted from this supposition. It has provided a theological justification to Caucasian Americans and others for feelings of superiority, prejudice, and actions that are oppressive to African Americans." Slave owners would use points like this to comfort themselves, one another, and to make slaves believe that their enslavement was God's will.
I hope you feel as if you finally got an answer to your actual question.

2006-10-15 21:46:01 · answer #6 · answered by Jade E 1 · 1 1

Remember that people in Africa sold their own people to the Americans.

2006-10-15 21:19:31 · answer #7 · answered by sugarpacketchad 5 · 1 2

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