First of all, let us note that such a thing as Jesus’ not having a human as his father would not be beyond the power of God. As has well been noted: “If God made the first man—Adam—without a human mother, then could not the same God bring into being the second Adam—Christ—without a human father?” Surely! But those who object to the virgin birth of Jesus usually also object to the Bible’s account of creation. As one of these critics put it: “I for one am not willing to grant that God made Adam without a mother.”
But those who do accept the Bible as God’s inspired Word have no difficulty in believing that He, who created Adam with sperm cells in the first place and who endowed womankind with the power to conceive and bear children, could also produce a sperm cell apart from any human and could place it in a virgin and so cause her to conceive without the aid of a male human. If we at all believe in God, we must grant him these powers, must we not? It is indeed noteworthy that the angel made this very point in reply to the virgin Mary’s question as to how she was to conceive since she was having no relations with any man. Said the angel, “because with God no declaration will be an impossibility.”—Luke 1:36, 37.
Today it is commonly dismiss how the Gospel records of Jesus’ birth by Matthew and Luke. Instead of accepting such charges as false, let us examine the Gospel records for ourselves. In the process, let us see what they have to teach us today.
According to the inspired word: "she was found to be pregnant by [holy spirit] before they were united.” (Mt 1:18) Prior to this, Jehovah’s angelic messenger had informed the virgin girl Mary that she would ‘conceive in her womb’ as the result of God’s holy spirit coming upon her and His power overshadowing her. (Lu 1:30, 31, 34, 35)
Since actual conception took place, it appears that Jehovah God caused an ovum, or egg cell, in Mary’s womb to become fertile, accomplishing this by the transferal of the life of his firstborn Son from the spirit realm to earth. (Ga 4:4) Only in this way could the child eventually born have retained identity as the same person who had resided in heaven as the Word, and only in this way could he have been an actual son of Mary and hence a genuine descendant of her forefathers Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Judah, and King David and legitimate heir of the divine promises made to them. (Ge 22:15-18; 26:24; 28:10-14; 49:10; 2Sa 7:8, 11-16; Lu 3:23-34;
MARY’S OTHER CHILDREN: Did Mary, who was now the legal wife of Joseph, bear any other children?
Turn, please, to Matthew 13:55, 56, and read: “Is not this the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary, and his brethren James and Joseph and Simon and Jude? And his sisters, are they not all with us? Whence therefore hath he all these things?” (Dy) Luke 2:7 agrees with this when it calls Jesus Mary’s “firstborn” son, not an only son. And when Matthew 1:25, Dy, says, “[Joseph] knew her not till she brought forth her firstborn son,” it goes without saying that he did “know” her after that; yes, and she brought forth other children.
The apostle John throws further light on the matter by showing that these references to Jesus’ brothers do not refer to his followers, Note: John 7:3, 5, Dy.
Nor can it be argued that these brothers were merely cousins, for we read: “While he was still speaking to the crowds, his mother and his brethren were standing outside, seeking to speak to him. Note: Matt. 12:46-50,
These statements in God’s Word certainly cast no reproach on faithful Mary; rather, hers was a great privilege as a servant of the Lord, to be the virgin who gave birth to the promised Son of God and Savior of believing mankind. (Isa. 7:14) All Christians gladly accept the inspired record that shows such to be her happy lot, so let us also accept this further statement given under the same guiding spirit of God regarding other events in her life.
2006-10-14 09:12:37
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answer #1
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answered by jvitne 4
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In the religion at that time, virgins were considered to be pure. She was also unmarried. At that time, sex was something that was to be saved explicitly for marriage. So, in order for the son of god to be born, it made sense that he should be carried in a "pure/perfect" vessel. It was also symbolizing that he was the son of god. He wouldnt be the son of god if she got impregnated by a human man. Also, it was to remove doubt that he was the child of a human. I understand this part of it, however, (I know alot of people that are religious dont agree with me) I dont believe she would have remained a virgin after having jesus. I believe that its definitly possible that jesus had brothers and/or sisters. Why wouldnt mary and joseph have sex? Thats absurd to me. Back then, that was the point of marriage. To procreate. Anyhow, this is just my opinion.
2006-10-14 08:47:30
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answer #2
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answered by musicgurl1 3
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Yes, she was a virgin, but she did not stay a virgin after the birth of Jesus.
2006-10-14 09:06:00
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answer #3
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answered by Birdbrain 4
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Jesus was not the first, or the only, person reported to have born from a virgin. That is more than enough for me to question the 'story'.
2006-10-14 08:45:42
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answer #4
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answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7
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properly, the Bible says that the finished earth became flooded and that Jesus became born to a virgin, and the Bible would not lie, so yea, i've got faith those 2 actually. As for the 0.33 question....."What the fruit?"
2016-10-16 04:52:30
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answer #5
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answered by Anonymous
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He was born to the Virgin Mary to show He was always blameless, perfect and pure. It says in the scriptures that Christ was conceived by the Holy Spirit, forming Christ inside her, but not having sexual relations to anyone.
2006-10-14 08:47:39
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answer #6
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answered by Sir Nigel 6
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Simple!!!!! Your question is how can any reasonable person believe that Jesus was born to a virgin girl. FAITH.....
2006-10-14 10:49:51
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answer #7
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answered by sassy 2
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The bible was written at a time when being a virgin was virtuous and pure for a woman. It doesn't matter that it does not increase any positive qualities. Whoever wrote the bible thought it did.
2006-10-14 08:46:30
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answer #8
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answered by Charles15589 2
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The word "virgin" in those days was not a reference to sexual activity, it was a way of saying "young woman."
2006-10-14 08:45:46
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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The people who believe it aren't bad, they're just brainwashed.
2006-10-14 08:44:29
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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