In a car accident, can a person be charged with failure to stop and render aid if they just happened to see a car accident, and didn't bother to stop and help? Or does this offense apply only to those who were actually involved in causing the accident? Also, for instance, let's say you see little kids beating a person. If the police found out that you witnessed this happening, and that you neglected to notify the proper authorities, would that result in a charge of failure to stop and render aid for the witness?
2006-10-12 10:08:15 · 5 answers · asked by LibraT 4 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
I'm not 100% sure....but I believe that while it may be unethical & immoral - there's nothing ILLEGAL about doing nothing to help someone in need like your examples. What would be illegal is to purposely hinder others from helping out. I'm assuming some other answers were confirm whether or not I'm correct.
2006-10-12 10:11:51 · answer #1 · answered by captain2man 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In many States you are required to stop and render aid, up to the level of your abilities and training. This is intended towards getting injured people treatment/first aid as soon as possible. Let's say you don't have any training at all - you should still stop, call 911 and pass the information to the dispatcher. They need to know how many victems, how severe the injuries seem to be, and that sort of stuff. If others are on the scene, even if they are "civilians", or the parties say they can handle it, then drive on.
I have seen people both prosecuted and sued civilly for failing to stop and render aid.
2006-10-12 17:39:27 · answer #2 · answered by APRock 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
NO! To both questions. I would think that you would want to offer any aid you could in an accident and if you witness someone being attacked you should call 911 and report it. Being a decent person is not required by law.
2006-10-12 17:36:07 · answer #3 · answered by daydoom 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Stopping to render aid as a motorist is a special case - yes, you sign that you will do that, but I don't think it is ever prosecuted on that basis alone.
But you are under no obligation to intervene with a crime unless you are a person of certain licensures and the crimes are certain crimes. I don't know if we are obligated to report crimes that we see, other than that.
2006-10-12 17:12:15 · answer #4 · answered by All hat 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
what you seem to be refering to is a Good Neighbor Law. this is actually in affect in Germany. or at least it was over 20 years ago when i was there.
depends on the state you are in and the jursidiction. most places if there is no intervention, it's only unethical not to do something.
2006-10-12 19:07:27 · answer #5 · answered by Bella 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋