I think your question has been answered. Because it is believed that we are not under the Law, or we're only to keep 9 of the Commandments except the Fourth, or that the Ten Commandments are part of the law of Moses so we're not longer to keep it because Jesus nailed it to the Cross. I believe they're good and honest people.
However, the Bible tells us that there are two laws: the Moral Law --the Ten Commandments--, and the ceremonial law --law of Moses. The Ten Commandment Law is not part of the law of Moses. The Mosaic law was nailed to the Cross, but not the Ten Commandment Law. It's Biblical.
For example,
Who proclaimed the Ten Commandments?
"And the LORD spake unto you out of the midst of the fire: ye heard the voice of the words, but saw no similitude; only ye heard a voice. And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone." (Deuteronomy 4:12,13)
How did the ceremonial law come to be knwon?
"And the LORD called unto Moses, and spake unto him out of the tabernacle of the congregation, saying, Speak unto the children of Israel, and say unto them, If any man of you bring an offering unto the LORD, ye shall bring your offering of the cattle, even of the herd, and of the flock." (Leviticus 1:1,2)
"This is the law of the burnt offering, of the meat offering, and of the sin offering, and of the trespass offering, and of the consecrations, and of the sacrifice of the peace offerings; Which the LORD commanded Moses in mount Sinai, in the day that he commanded the children of Israel to offer their oblations unto the LORD, in the wilderness of Sinai." (Leviticus 7:37,38)
Who wrote the Ten Commandments?
"And he gave unto Moses, when he had made an end of communing with him upon mount Sinai, two tables of testimony, tables of stone, written with the finger of God." (Exodus 31:18)
"And the tables were the work of God, and the writing was the writing of God, graven upon the tables." (Exodus 32:16)
Whose writing was the one of the law of Moses?
"Neither will I any more remove the foot of Israel from out of the land which I have appointed for your fathers; so that they will take heed to do all that I have commanded them, according to the whole law and the statutes and the ordinances by the hand of Moses." (2 Chronicles 33:8)
Where did God write down the Ten Commandments?
"And he declared unto you his covenant, which he commanded you to perform, even ten commandments; and he wrote them upon two tables of stone" (Deuteronomy 4:13)
Where was written down the ceremonial law?
"And they removed the burnt offerings, that they might give according to the divisions of the families of the people, to offer unto the LORD, as it is written in the book of Moses. And so did they with the oxen." (2 Chronicles 35:12)
Where were the Ten Commandments placed?
"And he took and put the testimony into the ark, and set the staves on the ark, and put the mercy seat above upon the ark:" (Exodus 40:20).
Where did Moses commanded his book of the law to be placed?
"Take this book of the law, and put it in the side of the ark of the covenant of the LORD your God, that it may be there for a witness against thee." (Deuteronomy 31:26)
What's the nature of the Law of God: the Ten Commandments?
"For we know that the law is spiritual: but I am carnal, sold under sin." (Romans 7:14)
When would the ceremonial law finish?
"Which was a figure for the time then present, in which were offered both gifts and sacrifices, that could not make him that did the service perfect, as pertaining to the conscience; Which stood only in meats and drinks, and divers washings, and carnal ordinances, imposed on them until the time of reformation." (Hebrews 9:9-10)
When would this change or reform happen?
"But Christ being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us." (Hebrews 9:11-12)
How did Christ's sacrifice affect the ceremonial law?
"Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;" (Ephesians 2:15)
How was the end of the sacrifice system manifested?
"Jesus, when he had cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost. And, behold, the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom; and the earth did quake, and the rocks rent;" (Matthew 27:50,51)
Why was the ceremonial law removed?
"For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof. For the law made nothing perfect, but the bringing in of a better hope did; by the which we draw nigh unto God." (Hebrews 7:18-19)
Well, these are some differences and texts regarding the two Laws found in the Bible. One wa ablished, but it was not the Ten Commandment Law.
"If ye love me, keep my commandments." (John 14:15)
"Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." (Romans 3:31)
"But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed." (James 1:25)
"For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law. So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty." (James 2:10-12)
"And hereby we do know that we know him, if we keep his commandments. He that saith, I know him, and keepeth not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him." (1 John 2:3-4)
"For this is the love of God, that we keep his commandments: and his commandments are not grievous." (1 John 5:3)
"Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (1 John 3:4)
"What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid." (Romans 6:15)
"Honour thy father and mother; which is the first commandment with promise; That it may be well with thee, and thou mayest live long on the earth." (Ephesians 6:2,3)
"Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin." (Romans 3:20)
"What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet." (Romans 7:7)
What does the Bible say the New Covenant is about?
"For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:" (Hebrews 8:10)
These are some out many Bible verses regarding the Moral Law of God, The Ten Commandments apply today just as they have been doing. We're not under the Law, but under grace. However, "What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid." (Romans 6:15). We're saved by faith in God's grace, not by our works: "For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast." (Ephesians 2:8,9). However, "Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law." (Romans 3:31)
The fact that we're not under the Law --but under grace-- doesn't mean we don't have any responsability to obey it. "For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace. What then? shall we sin, because we are not under the law, but under grace? God forbid." (Romans 6:14,15)
What does the Bible mean here, that we're nott under the Law but under grace, but that grace doesn't exempt us from keeping the Law?
Paul answers in Romans 3:19: "Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." "Here Paul equates being under the law with 'being guilty before God.' In other words, those who are under the law are guilty of breaking it and are under the condemnation of it. This is why Christians are not under it. They are not breaking it - not guilty and condemned by it. Therefore, they are not under it, but are under the power of grace instead. Later in his argument, Paul points out that the power of grace is greater than the power of sin. This is why he states so emphatically, 'For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.' Grace overrules the authority of sin, giving power to obey God's law. This is the effective reason that we are not under the law's guilt and condemnation and also why Paul states that we will not continue to sin." (http://www.amazingfacts.org/items/Read_Media.asp?ID=648&x=17&y=33)
For more information, you may see the webpage above, and http://www.amazingfacts.org/items/Read_Media.asp?ID=654&x=27&y=12
Also, check out these videos: http://www.amazingfacts.org/resources/video/NRVideo/NR06.asx
http://www.amazingfacts.org/resources/video/NRVideo/NR07.asx
Also, you may check http://www.sabbathtruth.com/
You may e-mail me if you want to. I'll be glad to help.
God bless you!
2006-10-13 00:21:03
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answer #1
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answered by Cachanilla 3
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