If both Greek and English have two distinct words for wine and juice, why would there be a loss in translation

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If both Greek and English have two distinct words for wine and juice, why would there be a loss in translation

2006-10-11 12:51:52 · 3 answers · asked by reinadelaz 6 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality

3 answers

There wouldn't be, it's only people who want to bend the scriptures to make wine be juice. It was wine baby, real wine and it was quite stout in those days.

2006-10-11 12:54:37 · answer #1 · answered by Prophecy+History=TRUTH 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋

Well, if there was only juice, there wouldn't have been any call for the people to say Jesus was a drunkard (based on the people he was hanging out with). There's really no logic in that argument.

2006-10-11 13:12:40 · answer #2 · answered by Kithy 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋

Maybe the person translating was drunk?

2006-10-11 13:09:33 · answer #3 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋