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Give me one scripture in which Jesus praying to God addressed Him as Jehovah? I can only find in NWT where Jesus in praying addressed God as "Father or Abba Father".

2006-10-11 12:22:55 · 17 answers · asked by Pat Riot 1 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

The simple truth is this: There are no - zero, nil, nada - scriptures in the original Greek-language manuscripts of the New Testament where Jesus addressed his father as Jehovah. There are however scriptures where he addresses him as Father.

As to whether or not Jesus actually said "YHWH" when he read aloud from the scroll of Isaiah, we have no way of knowing. By that time, it was the custom to say Lord. Since it would not be disrespectful to say "Lord', it's possible that Jesus honored that custom.
Most certainly Jesus knew the name. In John 17:6.he says that he made the name manifest "to the men you gave me out of the world" indicating that he may not have manifested it to the world in general, but only to his special chosen apostles.

Rather than speculating about what MIGHT have been, a Christian simply relies on the scriptures as they are written. Since YHWH does not appear in the Greek, then a good translator would not add the name in places where it doesn't belong. Unfortunately, Jehovah's Witnesses have brazenly changed "lord" and "god" to "Jehovah" in more than 200 scriptures of the New Testament.

In a 1997 Watchtower, the WT tells us "about 5000 manuscripts in Greek have been catalogued. One of these has been dated as before 125 CE, thus just a few years after the time of orginal writing." and "The large reservoir of original-language manuscripts of the Bible provides a mean for checking the validity of any translation".

So lets check a scripture - Romans 10:13. The original Greek says "kyrios" (lord). Jehovah's Witnesses' Bible says "Jehovah".

Here's some good advice from the 1997 Watchtower:

1. The meaning must not be bent to conform to a particular doctrinal understanding.

2. When in doubt about the validity of a rendering...favor the versions that hold closely to what is in the original Hebrew and Greek text.

So if your translation "bends" scriptures to conform to a particular doctrinal understanding and does not hold closely to what is in the original manuscript, the WT asks: might the translators have tampered also with other parts of the Bible text?

If the shoe fits.

TeeM, what's with the "two verses". You didn't give even ONE verse , let alone two, where Jesus prayed to God and addressed him as Jehovah. Wasn't that the question?

2006-10-14 09:41:34 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The was no letter J in the old testament. This is an English transliteration. I believe the letter J was first used in the English language in the 16th century. this is why Jews referred to Jesus as Yeshua or what we would more properly translate Joshua. I think the word Jehovah was a translation from YHWH. Which are the only letters that are known for sure. Many translate it Yahweh but it's a best guess. The reason for the four letters is the name of God was considered so sacred that people didn't repeat it out of reverence. Then after time no longer knew what the vowels were for sure. I think this is true wouldn't hurt to double check, it's been a while since I have looked this up. It's unforutnate that those who see the word Jehovah in an English translated bible think this must be the original language. I sayagain there is no J in the Hebrw language. Thats why you wil to this day here jewish people call Jospeph ,Yoseph. Thisisn't suprising though most jehova's witnesses are unaware that Charles Russell was proved a perjurer in the files of High Court of Ontario March 17, 1913. After bringing a law suit angainst a man who had published a pamplet critical of him, he was forced to admit that he couldn't even read the greek alphabet. The case was Russell vs. Ross defamatory libel March17, 1913.

2006-10-11 12:36:11 · answer #2 · answered by Edward J 6 · 0 2

Jesus is Jehovah's only begotten Son. Because of this relationship, he addresses his Father, MY Father, and his God, My God. It is very familiar & intimate. He doesn’t need to say Jehovah when he prays but it doesn’t mean that he doesn’t.(John 17:26). Notice the difference with God’s servants/creation when they pray. Gen 32:9, Isa 37:15-20.They use the name of Jehovah when they pray.

At Luk23:46 it states 46 And Jesus called with a loud voice and said: “Father, into your hands I entrust my spirit.” This was quoted from Psalms 31:5. So you can tell that Jesus called to his Father Jehovah when he was about to die. “Into your hand I entrust my spirit.” The text continues “You have redeemed me, O Jehovah the God of truth.”

2006-10-12 04:32:08 · answer #3 · answered by trustdell1 3 · 0 0

The J in Jehovah, Jesus, Jeremiah, Jehu, etc comes from German. Since OLD English comes from the German family of words we have a lot in common with that language.

Jehovah is English, Yahweh is Hebrew, Jehova is Spanish.

When you look in your copy of the bible and it has LORD in all capitals that means the translators mistranslated YHWH.

That is like translating the Spanish name of Tomas into English not as Thomas, but as "MAN"

or translating "Iesouś" (Greek for Jesus) into English as "ANOINTED ONE"

In the NKJV please note:

Matt 4:7 Jesus said to him, “It is written again, ‘You shall not tempt the LORD your God.’”[c]
8 Again, the devil took Him up on an exceedingly high mountain, and showed Him all the kingdoms of the world and their glory. 9 And he said to Him, “All these things I will give You if You will fall down and worship me.”
10 Then Jesus said to him, “Away with you,[d] Satan! For it is written, ‘You shall worship the LORD your God, and Him only you shall serve.’”[e]

You will notice "LORD" or YHWH or in English Jehovah is used.

Why, because recent Archaeology discovery's show that the bibles in Jesus' day used the YHWH. So when Jesus quoted the Hebrew scriptures, he would have used Jehovah's name. (John 16:6, 26)

edit:

Now that I've shown you two verses what are you going to do?

2006-10-12 05:52:53 · answer #4 · answered by TeeM 7 · 1 0

Easy! The Gospels were written in Greek, but the scrolls in the synagogues of the time and place were in Hebrew.

(Luke 4:17-19,21) So the scroll of the prophet Isaiah was handed [Jesus], and he opened the scroll and found the place where it was written: 18 “Jehovah’s spirit is upon me, because he anointed me to declare good news to the poor, he sent me forth to preach a release to the captives and a recovery of sight to the blind, to send the crushed ones away with a release, 19 to preach Jehovah’s acceptable year.” ...“Today this scripture that you just heard is fulfilled.”

(Isaiah 61:1-2) The spirit of the Sovereign Lord Jehovah is upon me, for the reason that Jehovah has anointed me to tell good news to the meek ones. He has sent me to bind up the brokenhearted, to proclaim liberty to those taken captive and the wide opening [of the eyes] even to the prisoners; 2 to proclaim the year of goodwill on the part of Jehovah


Here are two additional prayers that mention the divine name:

(John 17:26) [Jesus said] I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them

(Matthew 6:9) You must pray, then, this way: “‘Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/library/na/index.htm

2006-10-12 18:14:22 · answer #5 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 0 0

Certainly, Jesus made his father's name known/manifest... ( John 17:6) KJV

Yes, the relationship between Father and Son was so close, Jesus was said to be in the 'bosom' of the Father- John 1:18 KJV ...
No mystery to Jehovah's Witnesses

2006-10-12 02:46:43 · answer #6 · answered by Merry 4 · 1 0

I don't know where to find that. I did find in Exodus 6:3
God speaking:
And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them?
Now if my Bible is faithful and true, and I believe it to be. Also God
being the same yesterday today and forever. Wouldn't it make
sense,due to the affore names mentioned that Jesus called His
Father Jehovah, reguardless whether you see it in print.

2006-10-11 12:46:47 · answer #7 · answered by Patty T 2 · 2 0

Let the Jehovah's witness be; have you ever have doors slammed in your face while trying to spread the gospel of God?
Judge not and you shall not be Judged.

2006-10-11 12:29:51 · answer #8 · answered by Roxton P 4 · 2 0

Usually a son never call his father by name especially if their relation is so close the way it was with Jesus and his Father.

Have you heard anyone calling his daddy by name?

Rarely! What you can hear is: Pa, daddy, that's my old man.

Now let me ask you a question:
What's beyond this line of reasoning of yours, curiosity, or else?

2006-10-11 13:02:29 · answer #9 · answered by papavero 6 · 1 0

Actually, to peachy, YHWH is disputed. It could be Yaweh to some, and "Jehovah" to others, although there is no "J" sound in Hebrew, so Jehovah would be wrong.

Really, not even my Hebrew-speaking friends can figure out YHWH, since Hewbrew is an abjad language (one that has no short vowel sounds, just like Arabic).

So, it can be disputed whether or not "YHWH" appears in the NT, althoughthe translators say they found no YHWH is the NT.
Notice how the NWT Bible is different from all the others?

2006-10-11 12:32:34 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 4

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