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(Exodus 21:7-11 NLT)
When a man sells his daughter as a slave, she will not be freed at the end of six years as the men are. If she does not please the man who bought her, he may allow her to be bought back again. But he is not allowed to sell her to foreigners, since he is the one who broke the contract with her. And if the slave girl's owner arranges for her to marry his son, he may no longer treat her as a slave girl, but he must treat her as his daughter. If he himself marries her and then takes another wife, he may not reduce her food or clothing or fail to sleep with her as his wife. If he fails in any of these three ways, she may leave as a free woman without making any payment.
2006-10-11 11:38:27 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
lol. Most christians will say this doesn't apply. Meaning, they only live by some parts of the bible and not by other parts.
2006-10-11 12:03:53 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
Moses and Aaron had to make weird laws because man's hearts were hardened. In the beggining with Adam and Eve it was not this way. Sin ended it all and since then men hear sin louder than they hear goodness from God.
Actually, sexual slavery is running rampant in third world countries like Cambodia, Mexico, India, and Africa. Mothers sell childreen into sexual acts as young as 1 year old. This is how they were taught to survive. Can't shun them for it cas they're ignorant. I can't imagine what home life is like for these people.
2006-10-11 11:47:37 · answer #2 · answered by Victim #4 1 · 4⤊ 1⤋
Great question!
Talk about immorality. How very sad that some will justify this by saying that it is a cultural issue...all the while trying to convince people that God is just and holy and "all" loving. If I sold my daughter as a sex slave, how could that be "loving"? As a parent, my job is to protect them, not purposefully put them in a horrible and abusive situation.
2006-10-11 11:43:20 · answer #3 · answered by FreeThinker 3 · 3⤊ 3⤋
Actually, it did not say "sex" slave in the quote that you gave. You seem to be embellishing. According to the quote that you gave, if the slave owner has sex with his female slave, then she is no longer his slave, but his wife -- you missed that one.
You may argue that back then, a wife was little better than a slave, but if you do that, you are bringing in the culture, which is something that you forbid us to do in our answers (not here, but in another one of your questions).
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BTW, you seem to be Muslim, according to your Q&A. It seems ironic that you, a Muslim, is trying to find fault with the law of the prophet Moses (pbuh).
2006-10-11 11:55:15 · answer #4 · answered by Randy G 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
I don't think it's moral, and neither is having sex with a child of nine, which Muhammad is said to have done.
Oh, the immorality done in the name of religion.
2006-10-11 11:43:26 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 2⤋
Oh man did u open a can of worms
2006-10-11 11:40:31 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Morality depends on your individual beliefs.
2006-10-11 11:46:42 · answer #7 · answered by Born Again Christian 5 · 2⤊ 1⤋
I'm free from false Biblical morality.
2006-10-11 11:40:52 · answer #8 · answered by AuroraDawn 7 · 3⤊ 2⤋
Too bad Mohammad isn't around. He'd have a good excuse for why Aisha's father did it to her
2006-10-11 11:43:30 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 3⤋
Same reason that your ignorance, worn with pride, looks truculent!
2006-10-11 18:10:19 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋