I think that it is a matter of semantics. The Bible often uses the word fool to describe someone misguided, a person who doesn't think things through. Paul speaks in such term in Galatians 3 v.1. The Book of Proverbs frequently uses the word "fool' in this way and Jesus tells the parable of the rich fool, namely a man who made all sorts of ambitious plans for himself without reflecting that his very life hung on a thread.
No, when Jesus spoke so sternly in Matthew Chapter 5 he was warning against anger and resentment against those around us and the frame of mind which causes us to view another person with utter contempt. Pause for a moment and imagine you yourself calling someone a fool. Just think what this does to you inside. It causes you to puff up with pride and feel really superior to the other person. You look down on him and despise him. It is damaging to you and to your whole attitude to the people around you. That is why it is an attitude to be avoided.
When Jesus commented in Matthew Chapter 23 on the attitude of the Pharisees, He was not losing His temper with them, but merely pointing out the illogicality of their position. They had, in modern parlance, lost the plot. He deplores their attitude, but not from a stance of superiority. He speaks in sorrow rather than in anger. You will not find anything whatsoever in the Gospels to suggest that Jesus ever suffered from pride. He was meek and humble of heart.
I hope this helps. It's something I've had to think through myself.
2006-10-14 10:02:08
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answer #1
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answered by Doethineb 7
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OriginalB and Jonathon, im affraid i have to burst both your bubbles and tell you that Jesus was in fact a real person who did exist. Religious aspects a side, he was atested for not just by the gospels but by historians of the time, mainly Josephus, and also a Roman historian who wrote of Jesus of nazareth who was crucified.
In response to the main question, it maybe a case of a mistranslation from the original Greek that the new testament was written in. It may also be a case that there were through time some altercations to the original text. But then again, what religious books havent actually been changed through history? None. Dont forget also that apart from being Godly, the human nature of Christ meant that it was possible for him to say things more out of anger than what he would have wanted to really say.
2006-10-11 17:13:07
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answer #2
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answered by MC 2
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I read the King James Bible, no such thing in Matthew like that,
How ever Jesus was a teacher and could havee said it would be foolish to do this or that,as a means of teaching us.He would not insult anyone,ever.I hav reread this scripture over and over,If any
one calls there" brother,raca,"raca in Aramaic means vain, empty, worthless.I can only take this to mean if you call someone a fool,you are being vain and insulting.Jesus as a teacher,having already taught them called them fools for not listening.I do not see it as derogatory,I see it as a stronger way to get them to understand.I think your best answer comes from
iamalsoti.
2006-10-11 05:30:13
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answer #3
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answered by gwhiz1052 7
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matthew 5 is expanding on the mosaic law for humans to increase love among themselves. the command not to murder is expanded to include being wrathful. if you call someone a fool or any other insult in anger, it comes under the same judgement as murder.
in matthew 23, Jesus is speaking to the pharisees who promote themselves as worshippers of God but do not serve as true worshippers. he calls them fools and hypocrites because they had worked against God's purpose and mislead the jews. they had killed prophets and taught lies. they had shown they were not 'brothers' with the people and thus were deserving of being called fools by God's son who they would later kill.
in verse 33 he calls them 'offspring of vipers', and we know satan is called the original serpant. they are satans children and thus Jesus could give the message of his father to them. they are hypocrites.
not suprising, many religious leaders today follow a way of life not dissimilar to the pharisees. though it is not our responsibility to call them fools, in anger.
2006-10-11 09:14:04
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answer #4
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answered by iamalsotim 3
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Because there is no fool like an old fool. none of us are perfect there fore he can't have been either he would have laughed and cried like the rest of us. we all make mistakes its just some make more than others. when he was of this earth then he was like us a being spirit. Do u know anybody that has never made a mistake? because i don't.
2006-10-11 06:28:03
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answer #5
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answered by pixie007 4
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'm no expert on the Bible and at the cost of being curesed by puritan Christians, I would dare to answer that it is Jesus's way of proving that he truly was human (Son of God, yet man amongst us). Humans have these traits of controversy. Didn't he go ballistic in the temple? Well that was not like him to get mad and crash everything! These are human traits; they do no good but we have them. To acknowledge and accept, yet master them is the great task we must perform.
2006-10-11 05:29:37
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answer #6
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answered by afiavini 1
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Jesus never existed and never will, religion causes alot of problems , more than any other thing on the whole planet.
Forget religions.
I SWEAR if i ever get the chance to rule a country or planet , i will ban religions and supporters of it.
No more islamic upset about cartoons and no more people hating jews and chrisitians taking things to obcene levels like in america.
sorry but i hate religion
2006-10-11 05:36:20
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answer #7
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answered by Jonathon 2
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I'm very sorry to point out that the Roman catholic church has tinkered and tweaked with the Bible to such an extent that it is virtually unrecognisable. Go with your heart, if you're a good person you don't need this altered bible.
2006-10-11 06:30:06
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answer #8
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answered by Mr Slug 4
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The bible is a collection of stories written over many years.
There are Jesus stories of ancient origin that were omitted from the bible "collection"
plenty of contradictions if you want to look for them
2006-10-11 05:37:34
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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I looked this up in the King James version and saw no contradiction.
Which verses were you thinking of?
2006-10-11 05:34:06
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answer #10
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answered by SteveT 7
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