2006-10-10 11:25:29 · 3 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
it depends...
according to biblical law a man is permitted to have more than one wife (sexist but a fact) so if the women is not married one can argue that she is now her "husband" but if she was married then it is adultery.
the other two answers above me are also good
2006-10-11 18:44:58 · answer #1 · answered by Gamla Joe 7 · 3⤊ 0⤋
Yeah...adultery would be sexual relations between someone who is married and anyone other than their spouse.
And for the record, while polygamy was permissable under biblical law, the biblical narrative implicitly discouraged it (i.e. it tended to cause problems). Also, it has been banned by rabbinic decree for some time now (in the case of Ashkenazim, for over 1,000 years).
More info here: http://www.askmoses.com/article.html?h=573&o=2488
2006-10-11 06:11:08 · answer #2 · answered by Daniel 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
On a lesser level than a married woman, but he does get lashes. (Keep in mind, pologamy was allowed).
Edit:
Yes, I know it's not allowed anymore, that's why I said was. Sorry for any misunderstanding.
2006-10-10 22:41:51 · answer #3 · answered by ysk 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋