If a married woman goes to a fertility clinic and had another mans seed insimanated in her .Especialy without her husbands permision
2006-10-09 16:31:44 · 22 answers · asked by truckercub1275 3 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
It would be cheating. Also, if the husband become suspicious of the child and can decide to do DNA test to confirm that he himself is father. If that is done, then it would be end of marriage.
2006-10-09 20:40:20 · answer #1 · answered by inin 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes I would call it adultery... just cause the women didnt lie down with the sperm doner, its still another mans sperm.. Also I dont like doing this practice, especially as in the west, its so common. How in the future will some girl or boy not know if they are actually related with all these closed adoptions, sperm donations, test tube babies, etc etc.. There will inevitably be some inbreeding going on.. will lead to a society of bad mutated diseased gene pooling.. a society of fools. (might already be happening by the state of USA affairs lately)
2006-10-10 03:13:16 · answer #2 · answered by Mintee 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am assuming that the sperm used was from a man that she knew and with her obtaining his sperm by insimanation of this nature it would not be considered adultery. But he fact that she wants to have a child in a marriage that her husband knows nothing about is only going to cause problems in the future. But this woman also has the right to have a child if she wishes and should go forth with what she strongly believes in and wants and should also be capable of handling the consequences of her actions since her actions involve that of another human being.
2006-10-09 23:55:50 · answer #3 · answered by lanna clause 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Without her husbands permission? That's not adultery but it is deceptive and deceitful! That's a decision that should be made together!
2006-10-09 23:36:29 · answer #4 · answered by luvmuzik 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not unless it's done naturally. If it's done invitro, it probably doesn't meet the test of Adultery, but it still could be considered a sex crime in Biblcal terms.
2006-10-09 23:43:24 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it's not adultery. It's certainly not an honest or loving thing for her to do, and her husband would almost certainly be pretty pissed off, but it's not adultery.
2006-10-09 23:33:32 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
No,but I agree with everyone else.It is grounds for divorce.If she wants to have children and her husband doesn't,then perhaps she should be the one to leave,but she should leave before just going out and getting pregnant,one way or another.
2006-10-09 23:36:59 · answer #7 · answered by kimberli 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ask the Husband
2006-10-09 23:33:48 · answer #8 · answered by Darriel Hagans 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Nope NOT adultery but would be a good reason for a divorce.
2006-10-09 23:34:13 · answer #9 · answered by larrys_babygurl_4life 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
its not adultery but what woman in her right mind would do her husband like that
2006-10-09 23:39:37 · answer #10 · answered by Jeannie T 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋